UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress.As we mark the 3rd anniversary of the UPSC Essentials magazine, we thank our readers for being part of this journey. Your trust, feedback and continued support have shaped the magazine and encouraged us to keep improving with every edition. Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for September 2026. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or write to us at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com.QUESTION 1Under Article 239AA of the Constitution, the Legislative Assembly has the power to make laws for the NCT of Delhi, except for matters with respect to:1. Police2. Finance3. Land4. Public order5. EducationSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5(b) 1, 3 and 4 only(c) 2, 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5Relevance: This question is relevant to the UPSC Prelims 2027 syllabus under Indian Polity, particularly the special constitutional provisions governing the National Capital Territory of Delhi. The topic is important for examining federalism and the administrative status of Union Territories.Explanation— Article 19 guarantees the fundamental rights to freedom of speech and expression and to assemble peaceably. These rights are subject to reasonable restrictions, including in the interests of “public order”.— Unlike other states, Delhi’s police and public order fall outside the legislative powers of the Delhi Assembly. Under Article 239AA(3)(a) of the Constitution, the Legislative Assembly has the power to make laws for NCT Delhi “except matters with respect to Entries 1, 2 and 18 of the State List,” which cover public order, police and land.Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.QUESTION 2Under Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), who is empowered to issue a prohibitory order restricting public assemblies or specified activities in an area?Story continues below this ad(a) Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned State(b) District Magistrate(c) Chief Minister of the concerned State(d) Governor of the concerned StateRelevance: This question is relevant to the UPSC Prelims 2027 syllabus under Indian Polity and Governance, particularly criminal justice legislation and executive magistracy. The topic is important for understanding public order, preventive measures and the powers of executive magistrates.Explanation— A prohibitory order is a magistrate’s written order that bars certain activity in an area, such as the assembly of five or more people. Section 163 of BNSS provides for it.— A separate remedy is available against such an order. Under Section 163(5), an aggrieved person can apply to the issuing magistrate to rescind or alter it. Section 163(7) requires the magistrate to give the applicant an early opportunity to appear and show cause. If the application is rejected wholly or partly, reasons must be recorded in writing.Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.QUESTION 3Consider the following statements:Story continues below this ad1. Discussions are allowed in the Legislature of a State with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.2. The validity of any proceedings in the Legislature of a State can be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Relevance: This question is relevant to the UPSC Prelims 2027 syllabus under Indian Polity, particularly the State Legislature and its constitutional privileges.Explanation— No discussion shall take place in the Legislature of a State with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.Story continues below this ad— The validity of any proceedings in the Legislature of a State shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.(Source: Constitution of India)QUESTION 4With reference to the Governor of a State, consider the following statements:1. The executive power of the State shall be vested in the Governor.2. The Governor shall hold office for a fixed term of five years.Story continues below this ad3. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor can be diminished during his term of office.How many of the statements given above are correct?(a) Only one(b) Only one(c) All three(d) NoneRelevance: This question is relevant to the UPSC Prelims 2027 syllabus under Indian Polity and Governance, particularly the State Executive. It tests the constitutional provisions relating to the Governor’s executive powers, tenure and conditions of service.Explanation— There shall be a Governor for each State. The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.— The executive power of the State shall be vested in the Governor and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.Story continues below this ad— The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. Although the normal term is five years under Article 156(3), the Governor does not have a guaranteed fixed tenure. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.— No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years.— The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.(Source: Constitution of India)QUESTION 5With reference to the Article 19(1), consider the following pairs:1. Article 19(1)(a) – to freedom of speech and expression2. Article 19(1)(b) – to form associations or unionsStory continues below this ad3. Article 19(1)(c) – to move freely throughout the territory of IndiaHow many of the pairs given above are correct?(a) Only one pair(b) Only two pairs(c) All three pairs(d) NoneRelevance: This question is relevant to the UPSC Prelims 2027 syllabus under Indian Polity, particularly Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution. The topic is important for understanding constitutional rights, their scope and the distinction between different freedoms.Explanation— The Constitution guarantees citizens the right to speech and peaceful assembly. But these rights are not absolute, and the police are not required to wait for violence before acting: preventive policing is both a power and, in certain circumstances, a statutory duty.— Article 19(1) provides for the protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.Story continues below this ad(a) to freedom of speech and expression; Hence, pair 1 is correct.(b) to assemble peaceably and without arms; Hence, pair 2 is not correct.(c) to form associations or unions [or co-operative societies]; Hence, pair 3 is not correct.(d) to move freely throughout the territory of India;(e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and(g) to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.Previous Daily Subject-Wise-QuizDaily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 165)Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 183)Daily subject-wise quiz — Science and Technology (Week 183)Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 183)Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 183)Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 183)Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X