As UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 is just few days away, current affairs should be your primary focus. UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs–based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find detailed answers to the MCQs with explanations.Gear up for UPSC Prelims 2026—Practice smarter, revise faster, and succeed with our Special Quiz Magazine. (Click Here)With reference to the ‘Anaimangalam copper plates’, consider the following statements:1. These were issued to commemorate grants made by the renowned Chola ruler Rajaraja I to a Buddhist vihara.2. Recently, Sweden has handed back the 11th-century Anaimangalam copper plates to India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?The Anaimangalam copper plates are important for UPSC Prelims because they highlight Chola administration, land grants, and the cultural links between religion and state patronage in medieval India. UPSC can ask questions on inscriptions, copper plates, ancient institutions, and art and culture topics linked with current affairs.Explanation— The Netherlands has handed back the 11th-century Anaimangalam copper plates to India, marking a major milestone in the relations between the two countries. Considered among the most significant surviving records of the Chola dynasty, the return coincides with Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to the Netherlands as part of his five-nation tour. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.Story continues below this ad— According to the Customs Department in Chennai, the Anaimangalam copper plates comprise a set of 21 large plates and three smaller ones. These were issued to commemorate grants made by the renowned Chola ruler Rajaraja I to a Buddhist vihara (monastery) at the Chola port town of Nagappattinam in Tamil Nadu. The vihara had been constructed by Chulamanivarman, the Sailendra ruler of Southeast Asia. Hence, statement 1 is correct.— Historical references suggest that Kulothunga Chola, believed to have descended from the Eastern Chalukya dynasty, favoured the use of the term “sunkam”, a word commonly used across the Deccan region during that period.Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.QUESTION 2With reference to the Polysilicon, consider the following statements:Story continues below this ad1. At present, there is no commercial production of polysilicon in India.2. It is an ultra-pure form of silicon consisting of many small crystals.3. It is a raw material for solar photovoltaic.How many of the statements given above are correct?(a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) NoneWhy this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?Polysilicon is important for UPSC Prelims because it is linked to India’s renewable energy transition, solar manufacturing ecosystem, and semiconductor mission. The topic is relevant in the context of supply-chain dependence on imports, Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes, and clean energy targets.Explanation— The government is working on a policy framework to support domestic manufacturing of polysilicon. The move comes as India seeks to reduce heavy import dependence on solar component manufacturing and strengthen the domestic supply chain.Story continues below this ad— While India has witnessed considerable growth in solar module and cell manufacturing capacity, upstream segments such as polysilicon refining as well as ingot and wafer manufacturing continue to face challenges.— India has 172 gigawatts of solar modules and 27.2 GW of cell manufacturing capacity. However, the installed ingot and wafer manufacturing capacity in the country is limited and stands around 2 GW.— At present, there is no commercial production of polysilicon in the country, the government had previously informed the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.— Polysilicon is an extremely pure type of silicon composed of several tiny crystals. It is a key raw element in both the solar photovoltaic (PV) and semiconductor industries. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.Therefore, option (c) is the correct answerQUESTION 3The synthesis gas (syngas) is a mixture of:1. Carbon Monoxide2. Nitrogen3. Carbon Dioxide4. Chlorine5. HydrogenSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:(a) 1, 2 and 3 only(b) 1, 3 and 5 only(c) 2, 3, and 5 only(d) 1, 3 and 4 onlyWhy this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?Story continues below this adThe topic has been in news due to India’s efforts to reduce crude oil imports and promote alternative energy and fertiliser production. UPSC frequently asks conceptual science and environment questions connected with industrial processes, energy security, and emerging technologies.Explanation— Coal gasification is a thermochemical process of converting coal into synthesis gas (syngas), which is a mixture of fuel-rich gases like carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2), hydrogen (H2), and methane (CH4).— The syngas can be used for producing Synthetic Natural Gas (SNG), electricity generation, energy fuel (methanol and ethanol), ammonia for fertilisers, and chemicals.— The coal gasification process involves oxidation of coal at higher temperatures and pressures to produce syngas. There are two main types of gasification: Surface gasification and Underground coal gasification (UCG).Story continues below this ad— In surface coal gasification, coal is first mined and then converted into gas in above-ground industrial reactors using oxygen, steam and high temperatures. In contrast, underground coal gasification converts coal into gas while it is still buried deep underground by injecting air or oxygen into coal seams through wells and extracting the resulting gas to the surface.Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.QUESTION 4The ‘Withholding tax’ is:(a) a tax imposed only on the export of goods and services from a country.(b) a direct tax levied exclusively on the retained earnings of domestic companies.(c) a surcharge collected by banks on all international money transfers made by residents.Story continues below this ad(d) a tax deducted at source and is paid by foreign investors on interest income they receive on their holding of Indian bonds.Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?UPSC can frame conceptual questions from economy related to taxation, capital markets, and fiscal policy measures appearing in current affairs.Explanation— After hiking import duty on gold, the government and the Reserve Bank of India are learnt to be considering multiple measures to attract foreign investment inflows including a cut in the withholding tax rate on government bonds, if not completely eliminating it.— Withholding tax is akin to a tax deducted at source and is paid by foreign investors on interest income they receive on their holding of Indian bonds. At present, non-residents pay a withholding tax of about 20% on the interest they get on the government bonds they hold — one of the highest in the world — after a concessional rate of 5% ended in 2023.Story continues below this ad— The discussions on some of these proposals have been on over the past few weeks with policy makers keen to conserve foreign exchange reserves and secure the external account amid the ongoing West Asia conflict.Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.QUESTION 5With reference to the India-Nordic Summit, consider the following statements:1. The first India-Nordic summit was held in Stockholm.2. The India-Nordic summits are only associated with Norway, Sweden, and Denmark.3. Recently, the third summit aims to establish a dedicated India-Nordic Arctic cooperation mechanism.How many of the statements given above are correct?(a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) NoneWhy this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?The India-Nordic Summit is important for UPSC Prelims because it highlights India’s engagement with the Nordic countries in areas such as green technology, clean energy, innovation, and Arctic cooperation. UPSC can ask questions on international groupings, bilateral and multilateral summits, and emerging strategic partnerships in current affairs.Explanation— Prime Minister Narendra Modi is headed to Norway for the third India-Nordic summit. He will then visit three more countries — the Netherlands, Sweden and Italy. The Prime Minister’s trip is part of India’s push to deepen ties with Europe, a process that has been going on for a few years now. The engagement resulted in the India-EU Free Trade Agreement (FTA) earlier this year, and is a larger attempt to broaden alliances at a time when the US is no longer the stable partner it was seen as.— The first India-Nordic summit was held in Stockholm (2018) and the second in Copenhagen (2022), bringing together leaders of India, Norway, Sweden, Denmark, Finland and Iceland. Only the US holds an equivalent summit-level engagement with the Nordics. Hence, statement 1 is correct.— The trade and investment logic is very important, as the India-Nordic trade in goods and services reached $19 billion in 2024 (exports $9.4 billion, imports $9.6 billion).— Each Nordic country brings distinct strengths — Sweden in industrial innovation and defence; Denmark in maritime and green technology; Norway in blue economy and Arctic; Finland in digital technologies; Iceland in geothermal energy. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.— With all five Nordic states as Arctic Council members, the Summit also aims to establish a dedicated India-Nordic Arctic cooperation mechanism. Hence, statement 3 is correct.Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.QUESTION 6The Wet Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) is a composite index which includes factors:1. Humidity2. Sunlight3. Atmospheric pressure4. WindSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 4 only(c) 2, 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 2 and 4 onlyWhy this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?WBGT is important for UPSC Prelims because it is linked to heat waves, climate change, occupational safety, and human health impacts. The index has gained relevance due to rising extreme heat conditions, urban heat stress, and discussions on climate resilience and disaster preparedness.Explanation— The world is set to be gripped by football World Cup fever, as an expanded, 48-team tournament will be played in the North American summer for the first time since 1994. A new scientific analysis by the World Weather Attribution (WWA), a climate research group, has warned that human-induced climate change has made heat stress at the upcoming World Cup more likely than it was in 1994.— Researchers from Imperial College London analysed Wet Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) across 16 venues in the United States, Mexico and Canada during the tournament period of June 11 to July 19. WBGT is a composite index which factors in the combined effect of humidity, sunlight and winds to determine how the human body can regulate internal heat and cool itself.— The study found that at least 25% of the 104 World Cup matches were likely to be played at 26°C and higher wet bulb globe temperature.Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.QUESTION 7With reference to the direct-seeded rice (DSR), consider the following statements:1. It is a method of sowing rice seeds directly into the main field, without raising nursery for transplanting seedlings.2. It is done only through sowing dry seed.3. It helps in substantial savings of irrigation water.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1 and 3 onlyWhy this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?Direct-Seeded Rice (DSR) is important for UPSC Prelims because it is associated with sustainable agriculture, water conservation, and climate-resilient farming practices. UPSC can ask questions on modern agricultural techniques, resource-efficient farming, and government initiatives related to agriculture and environment.Explanation— The Punjab government has aggressively promoted direct-seeded rice (DSR) for the past decade or so as an alternative to the conventional puddled transplanted paddy system.— Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) is a method of sowing rice seeds directly onto the main field without using a nursery to transplant seedlings. Hence, statement 1 is correct.— Direct seeding can be accomplished by sowing pre-germinated seed into wet soil (wet seeding via broadcast or drum seeder) or by planting dry seed (dry seeding by broadcast and seed-cum-fertilizer drill) on prepared ground. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.— Direct seeded rice provides several benefits, including significant savings in irrigation water, labour, energy, and time, as well as reduced greenhouse gas emissions. Aside from that, it creates a favourable soil condition for the growth and yield of subsequent crops. Hence, statement 3 is correct.Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.QUESTION 8Which of the following Indian states has announced incentives for the birth of a fourth child and third child to reverse the state’s declining population trend?(a) Sikkim(b) Kerala(c) Mizoram(d) Andhra PradeshWhy this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?The topic has gained relevance as some Indian states are shifting from population control measures to population stabilisation and workforce sustainability concerns. UPSC can frame questions on social sector policies, demographic indicators, and state-level governance initiatives appearing in current affairs.Explanation— Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister N Chandrababu Naidu announced incentives of Rs 40,000 for the birth of a fourth child and Rs 30,000 for a third child to reverse the state’s declining population trend.— Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister N Chandrababu Naidu announced incentives of Rs 40,000 for the birth of a fourth child and Rs 30,000 for a third child to reverse the state’s declining population trend.Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.QUESTION 9India has signed a framework for the storage of 30 million barrels in Indian strategic petroleum reserves with:(a) Qatar(b) Iran(c) Saudi Arabia(d) UAEWhy this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?Strategic Petroleum Reserves are important for UPSC Prelims because they are linked to India’s energy security, crude oil supply management, and geopolitical partnerships. UPSC can ask questions on international agreements, energy infrastructure, and strategic sectors connected with current affairs.Explanation— Deepening bilateral relations amid the crisis in West Asia, India and the UAE signed a slew of pacts including a framework for a strategic defence partnership, storage of 30 million barrels in Indian strategic petroleum reserves, supply of LPG and a ship repair cluster in Gujarat’s Vadinar.— The two leaders appreciated the vibrant and growing bilateral energy partnership, with the UAE maintaining its role as an important partner in India’s energy security, including in terms of crude oil, LNG and LPG supplies. The leaders agreed to promote new initiatives for a comprehensive energy partnership. In this context, they welcomed the conclusion of a Strategic Collaboration Agreement between Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited and Abu Dhabi National Oil Company to enhance UAE’s participation in India’s Strategic Petroleum Reserves to 30 million barrels, and work together to set up strategic gas reserves in India.Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.QUESTION 10Consider the following statements:1. Recently, the government has finalised three old thermal power plant sites for setting up of new nuclear power projects.2. India seeks to expand its civil nuclear power capacity from the current 8.8 gigawatt-electric (GWe) to 100 GWe by 2047.3. The Parliament passed SHANTI Act, 2025, which enabled private players to enter the operations side of nuclear projects and fuel management.How many of the statements given above are correct?(a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) NoneWhy this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?Nuclear energy is important for UPSC Prelims because it is linked to India’s energy security, clean energy transition, and net-zero commitments. The topic has gained relevance due to plans for expanding nuclear capacity, proposed reforms for private sector participation, and repurposing old thermal power sites.Explanation— In a significant move to repurpose ageing coal-fired power infrastructure, a government panel has shortlisted at least three old thermal power plant sites for setting up of new nuclear power projects. Of the three shortlisted sites, two have been found suitable for large nuclear reactors of 700 megawatt-electric (MWe) capacity, while one site is being considered for smaller 220 MWe reactors. Hence, statement 1 is correct.— The site selection exercise was carried out by a sub-committee of the Standing Site Selection Committee formed by CEA in January 2025. The panel included officials from CEA, Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) and the Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL).— The move comes as India seeks to expand its civil nuclear power capacity from the current 8.8 gigawatt-electric (GWe) to 100 GWe by 2047. Hence, statement 2 is correct.— In December, the Parliament passed SHANTI Act, 2025, marking a major shift in how India’s tightly-controlled nuclear power sector will be governed in the coming years. For the first time, the Act enabled private players to enter the operations side of this critical sector as well as areas such as fuel management, which had remained under tight public-sector control for decades. Hence, statement 3 is correct.— There are multiple reasons behind repurposing old thermal power plant sites for future nuclear projects. They include India’s ageing coal power fleet, rising emissions from older plants, increasingly stringent environmental norms, and the availability of existing land, water and infrastructure at these sites. Such a transition is also being viewed as an opportunity to support the country’s broader clean energy transition.Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for May 2026. 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