Legal Bites presents the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – November 2026, carefully designed to sharpen your preparation strategy and elevate your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In today’s highly competitive landscape, where question patterns are becoming increasingly dynamic and judgment-centric, consistent practice with well-curated, concept-driven questions is indispensable.While preparing this mock test, we have closely aligned with the latest CLAT PG 2026 pattern, ensuring comprehensive coverage of all subjects prescribed in the syllabus. The paper is thoughtfully structured to mirror the actual CLAT PG examination, enabling aspirants to gain familiarity with the exam format, question styles, and difficulty level. Regular practice with these questions will not only strengthen conceptual understanding but also improve speed, accuracy, and exam temperament.This mock test further functions as a reliable self-assessment tool, allowing candidates to evaluate their performance, identify areas of improvement, and refine their preparation in a systematic manner.All case-based questions included in this mock are sourced from significant judgments of the Supreme Court and various High Courts, primarily delivered in October 2026, ensuring relevance, precision, and alignment with the jurisprudence-focused nature of the CLAT PG examination.Attempt the mock questions below and take a confident step toward securing admission to your dream law school with Legal Bites.CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice QuestionsNovember 2026I. Kant and Fichte provided additional support for the Natural Law school of thought and the social contract theory in the eighteenth century. They underlined that "reason"—rather than historical fact—was the foundation of the social compact. Kant distinguished between acquired and natural rights, recognizing only the former as essential to an individual's freedom. He advocated for the division of powers and emphasized that the state's role should be to uphold the law. His renowned Categorical Imperative thesis was introduced in his seminal work, Critique of Pure Reason. Rousseau's theory of General Will served as the basis for Kant's theory of Categorical Imperative. It is based on two ideas:-According to the categorical imperative, a man must behave in a way that is dictated by the dictates of his own conscience. As a result, it is only a human right to self-determination.The idea of "autonomy of the will," which refers to the freedom to do as one pleases but also to an action arising from reason, was Kant's second main idea. "An action is right only if it coexists with each and every man's free will according to the universal law," was the basic tenet of Kantism. He referred to this as "the principle of Innate Right." He claimed that the state's only job was to make sure the law was followed.[Antara Roy, “Natural Law Theory and Its Applicability in India,” International Journal of Law Management & Humanities (IJLMH), Vol. 6, Issue 6, 2023]1. Which of the following philosophers provided additional support to the Natural Law school of thought and social contract theory during the eighteenth century?A. Bentham and AustinB. Kant and FichteC. Savigny and PuchtaD. Hart and KelsenAnswer: B2. Which of the following theories is most closely associated with Immanuel Kant?A. Theory of CommandB. Theory of VolksgeistC. Theory of Categorical ImperativeD. Theory of Social SolidarityAnswer: C3. According to the passage, Kant's theory of Categorical Imperative was influenced by which concept propounded by Rousseau?A. Sovereign CommandB. General WillC. Social SolidarityD. Historical ConsciousnessAnswer: B4. According to Kant, the primary function of the State is to:A. Maximise economic prosperityB. Enforce religious moralityC. Uphold the law and protect external freedomD. Determine the personal moral beliefs of citizensAnswer: C5. According to Kant's Principle of Innate Right, an action is right when:A. It promotes the greatest happiness of the greatest numberB. It is approved by the sovereign authorityC. It can coexist with the freedom of everyone under a universal lawD. It conforms to established historical traditionsAnswer: CII. Hobbes has mentioned nineteen laws of nature in his various works including Leviathan, Elements of law, and De Cive. In the “war of all against all” state of nature, no one, according to Thomas Hobbes, is safe and secure no matter how powerful he may be. Hence, the basic need of people is peace and this is the first law of nature. Thomas Hobbes, thus, derives the first two laws from nature with the help of ‘reason’. The first law is also described as 'the fundamental law’ by Hobbes in both leviathan and de cive as it is believed that all the other laws are concluded from the first law. The end goal of all human beings is to achieve peace. Those who can obtain it or endeavour it should follow it meticulously and those who have not achieved it yet should try all ways to do so until and unless war becomes the only solution.Now the question arises how should this peace be obtained in such a chaotic state of nature? The answer comes as the second law of nature which talks about giving up some rights. Like mentioned previously, in a state of nature, every person has a right to everything and this is the major reason for war. To avoid this and to keep himself safe and protected, a person should be willing to give away his rights to the extent to which he feels necessary. By giving up Hobbes means to renounce or to transfer. By renouncing or transferring his right against any individual, a person does not give the latter some rights which were held by the former previously. Instead, the former tries to enjoy his original rights without any hindrance from the latter. This giving up on rights makes a person duty-bound in the future not to exercise the same rights against whom they have been renounced. There is a big exception to this law. A person cannot give away his right to resist an attack on his body or anything that can put his life in danger.[Extracted from Ayushi Srivastava, “Thomas Hobbes Theory of Law and Justice with Contemporary Examples,” International Journal of Law Management & Humanities (IJLMH), Vol. 4, Issue 3, 2021]6. According to Thomas Hobbes, what is the first and fundamental law of nature?A. To obey the sovereign unconditionallyB. To seek peace and follow itC. To surrender all individual rightsD. To establish equality through legislationAnswer: B7. According to Hobbes, the first two laws of nature are derived through:A. Historical traditionsB. Divine commandmentsC. ReasonD. Judicial precedentsAnswer: C8. According to Hobbes, what is the consequence of renouncing or transferring a right?A. The individual becomes obligated not to exercise that right against the person concerned.B. The individual acquires unlimited authority over others.C. The individual loses every right of self-preservation.D. The individual becomes exempt from all contractual obligations.Answer: A9. Which of the following rights cannot be surrendered under Hobbes' theory of natural law?A. Right to acquire propertyB. Right to enter into contractsC. Right to resist an attack threatening one's lifeD. Right to participate in political affairsAnswer: C10. According to the passage, how many laws of nature did Hobbes mention in his various works?A. TwelveB. FifteenC. Twenty-oneD. NineteenAnswer: DIII. The most important task of the International Court of Justice, like any other judicial authority, is to resolve disputes between the members of the legal system in which they are located. However, as in the case of domestic private litigation, interstate disputes before the International Court of Justice may be referred to the court for reasons beyond the scope of the settlement of the dispute. These goals may include the willingness to publicize an issue, the use of judicial proceeding or the threat to use it as a negotiating lever, and the need to persuade public opinion to follow through effective measures by the responsible government to resolve existing disputes (Jacob, 1996: 214). Under Article 33 of the United Nations Charter, "the parties to a dispute whose continuity may endanger international peace and security must at first come to an agreement in solving their problems through negotiation, investigation, mediation, arbitration, peaceful settlement, appealing to regional institutions and organizations, or any other peaceful acts. In this regard, the International Court of Justice has a special position, since Article 36 (3) of the Charter requires the Security Council, at the time of its recommendation, to consider the point that the legal disputes of the parties must be referred to the International Court of Justice. However in practice, the Council has not paid much attention to this task in recent years, and in some cases, like the "Case Study of the Interpretation and Implementation of the 1971 Convention", has even prevented the Court from considering the case.[Extracted from: Ali Reza Annabi & Mahmoud Jalali, “Study the Jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice (ICJ),” International Journal of Law, Vol. 7, Issue 5 (2021)]11. What is the primary function of the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?A. To prosecute individuals for international crimesB. To settle legal disputes between StatesC. To enforce resolutions adopted by the United Nations General AssemblyD. To impose economic sanctions on States violating international lawAnswer: B12. Which Article of the United Nations Charter provides for the peaceful settlement of disputes through negotiation, mediation, arbitration and other peaceful means?A. Article 32B. Article 38C. Article 36D. Article 33Answer: D13. Under Article 36(3) of the United Nations Charter, which organ is required to consider that legal disputes should, as a general rule, be referred to the International Court of Justice?A. United Nations General AssemblyB. United Nations SecretariatC. United Nations Security CouncilD. United Nations Economic and Social CouncilAnswer: C14. Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?A. Geneva, SwitzerlandB. New York, United StatesC. The Hague, NetherlandsD. Vienna, AustriaAnswer: C15. The International Court of Justice was established in which year?A. 1919B. 1920C. 1948D. 1945Answer: DIV. The Trusteeship Council was established in 1945 by the UN Charter, under Chapter XIII, to provide international supervision for 11 Trust Territories that had been placed under the administration of seven Member States, and ensure that adequate steps were taken to prepare the Territories for self-government and independence. By 1994, all Trust Territories had attained self-government or independence. The Trusteeship Council suspended operation on 1 November 1994. By a resolution adopted on 25 May 1994, the Council amended its rules of procedure to drop the obligation to meet annually and agreed to meet as occasion required -- by its decision or the decision of its President, or at the request of a majority of its members or the General Assembly or the Security Council.[Extracted from United Nations Information Service (UNIS) Vienna, “The UN in General”]16. Under which Chapter of the United Nations Charter was the Trusteeship Council established?A. Chapter XIB. Chapter XIIC. Chapter XIIID. Chapter XIVAnswer: C17. How many Trust Territories were originally placed under the international supervision of the Trusteeship Council?A. 7B. 10C. 11D. 15Answer: C18. The 11 Trust Territories were administered by how many Member States?A. FiveB. SevenC. NineD. ElevenAnswer: B19. On which date did the United Nations Trusteeship Council suspend its operations?A. 1 November 1994B. 24 October 1945C. 25 May 1994D. 31 December 1994Answer: A20. Which of the following best explains why the Trusteeship Council suspended its operations in 1994?A. The United Nations Charter was amended to abolish the trusteeship systemB. All Trust Territories had attained self-government or independenceC. The Security Council assumed direct administration of the Trust TerritoriesD. The General Assembly declared the trusteeship system unconstitutionalAnswer: BV. The precedents trace the transformative shift in Hindu women's property rights from earlier statutory Acts such as the Act, 1937, which conferred rights beyond survivorship or inheritance but retained a limited estate, to the expansive reach of Section 14(1) of the HSA, 1956. Across these Rulings, this Court held that Section 14(1) overrides traditional Shastric law by abolishing the restricted "widow's estate," making a female Hindu an absolute owner with full disposition rights. Neither party has placed a decision on the scope and extent of the words “or in any other manner whatsoever” in the Explanation to Section 14(1) of the HSA, 1956. The expression, “or in any other manner whatsoever”, means using any method, form, or way without exception or limitation. It is a comprehensive legal and formal term used to ensure that no other way of doing something is permitted or considered, covering all possible variations or alternatives.[Extracted from Sultan Singh (Dead) Through LRs & Ors. v. The Financial Commissioner, Government of NCT of Delhi & Ors., Civil Appeal No. 9146 of 2012]21. According to the passage, Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 overrides which of the following?A. Muslim Personal LawB. Traditional Shastric lawC. Indian Contract Act, 1872D. Transfer of Property Act, 1882Answer: B22. Under Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, any property possessed by a female Hindu shall be held by her as:A. A limited ownerB. A full ownerC. A trustee for her legal heirsD. A life tenant without the right of alienationAnswer: B23. Which of the following modes of acquisition of property is expressly recognised under the Explanation to Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?A. Inheritance or deviseB. PartitionC. Purchase or prescriptionD. All of the aboveAnswer: D24. According to the Explanation to Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the expression 'property' includes:A. Only movable propertyB. Only immovable propertyC. Both movable and immovable propertyD. Only property acquired through inheritanceAnswer: C25. The landmark judgment in V. Tulasamma & Ors. v. Sesha Reddy (1977) 3 SCC 99 primarily deals with the interpretation of which provision of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?A. Section 6B. Section 8C. Section 14D. Section 15Answer: CVI. Article 14 of the Constitution does not prohibit every classification, but it requires that a classification rest upon an intelligible differentia and bear a rational nexus to the object sought to be achieved. Reservation itself is founded upon substantive equality and therefore necessarily involves classification, however the class which receives the benefit must be identifiable by the disadvantage which the constitutional measure seeks to remedy. The impugned G.O. does not explain why a Hindu belonging to one Backward Class community, another belonging to a Most Backward Class community, a member of a Denotified Community and a person formerly belonging to a Scheduled Caste should, upon conversion to Islam, become members of one or another of seven pre-existing Muslim communities. We feel that there is no common nexus being demonstrated by the said G.O. and everything is approved on mere presumption. The defect becomes more pronounced in the case of a person who was originally a member of Scheduled Caste. The Scheduled Caste status is governed by the specific constitutional mechanism contained in Article 341 and the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, and is therefore not a matter which can be altered or recreated by an executive order of the State. This Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 specifies the castes deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to various States and Union territories.[Extracted from The Secretary to Government v. Sameer Ahamed N. and Others, Special Leave Petition (Civil) No. 25507 of 2026]26. Which of the following is an essential requirement for a classification to be constitutionally valid under Article 14 of the Constitution of India?A. The classification must apply uniformly to all citizens.B. The classification must be based exclusively on economic considerations.C. The classification must rest upon an intelligible differentia having a rational nexus with the object sought to be achieved.D. The classification must receive prior approval from Parliament.Answer: C27. According to the passage, the constitutional foundation of reservation is:A. Formal equalityB. Substantive equalityC. Absolute equalityD. Political equalityAnswer: B28. Which constitutional provision governs the specification of Scheduled Castes in India?A. Article 340B. Article 341C. Article 342D. Article 343Answer: B29. Under Article 341(1) of the Constitution of India, who is empowered to specify the Scheduled Castes in relation to a State or Union Territory?A. President of IndiaB. ParliamentC. Governor of the StateD. National Commission for Scheduled CastesAnswer: A30. Under Article 341(1) of the Constitution, the President specifies Scheduled Castes through:A. An ordinanceB. A constitutional amendmentC. A public notificationD. A parliamentary resolutionAnswer: CVII. It is submitted that the High Court failed to appreciate the settled legal position that to constitute an offence under Section 307 of the IPC, it is not essential that bodily injury capable of causing death must actually be inflicted and the intention and knowledge of the accused are to be gathered from the totality of the circumstances, including the nature of the weapons used, the prior enmity between the parties and the manner of execution of the attack and not merely from the seat or gravity of the wounds actually sustained.[Extracted from Abhishek v. State of Rajasthan & Ors., Criminal Appeal arising out of SLP (Crl.) No. 12710 of 2025]31. Section 109 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with which of the following offences?A. Culpable homicide not amounting to murderB. Attempt to commit culpable homicideC. Attempt to murderD. MurderAnswer: C32. Section 109 of the BNS, 2023 corresponds to which provision of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?A. Section 307B. Section 304C. Section 302D. Section 308Answer: A33. Under Section 109(1) of the BNS, 2023, if hurt is caused during an attempt to murder, the offender may be punished with:A. Imprisonment extending to seven years onlyB. Imprisonment for life or imprisonment extending to ten years and fineC. Death penalty in every caseD. Imprisonment extending to three years and fineAnswer: B34. How many chapters are contained in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?A. 20B. 21C. 23D. 25Answer: A35. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with the offence of murder?A. Section 100B. Section 101C. Section 103D. Section 109Answer: BVIII. The Court expressed concern over the prolonged presence of particulate matter (PM) released by firecrackers, which can remain suspended in the atmosphere for several days after the festival. These microscopic particles, once inhaled, can bypass the body's natural filtration mechanisms and enter the bloodstream, causing serious health complications. Their harmful effects also extend to other forms of life.Following its earlier order dated 15 October 2025, the Court permitted the bursting of firecrackers on 7 and 8 November 2026, strictly between 6:00 AM and 7:00 AM and 8:00 PM and 10:00 PM. It further prohibited fireworks within a 300-metre radius of hospitals, nursing homes, health centres, old-age homes, educational institutions and notified silence zones. These areas must be designated, marked and publicised as ‘No-Cracker Zones’. The authorities were directed to ensure strict compliance with these restrictions, particularly to protect individuals suffering from health ailments.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Arjun Gopal & Ors. v. Union of India & Ors. (2026 INSC 1181)]36. Particulate matter (PM) released by firecrackers may remain suspended in the atmosphere for:A. Only a few minutes after burstingB. Several hours, but not beyond the festivalC. Several days after the festivalD. Several months in all circumstancesAnswer: C37. What is the primary health concern associated with microscopic particulate matter released by firecrackers?A. It causes only temporary irritation to the eyes.B. It can bypass the body's natural filtration mechanisms and enter the bloodstream.C. It affects only individuals suffering from respiratory diseases.D. It becomes harmless immediately after inhalation.Answer: B38. On which dates did the Supreme Court permit the bursting of firecrackers in November 2026?A. 5 and 6 November 2026B. 6 and 7 November 2026C. 7 and 8 November 2026D. 8 and 9 November 2026Answer: C39. The Supreme Court prohibited the bursting of firecrackers within what radius of specified sensitive institutions?A. 100 metresB. 200 metresC. 500 metresD. 300 metresAnswer: D40. Which constitutional provision specifically directs the State to endeavour to protect and improve the environment?A. Article 32B. Article 48AC. Article 51A(g)D. Article 300AAnswer: BIX. Section 2(da) defines ‘powerloom’ as a loom operated by power, as defined under Section 2(g) of the Factories Act, and used or capable of being used for weaving cloth wholly or partly from cotton yarn, woollen yarn, fibre or mixed yarn. Further, Section 2(db) defines ‘powerloom industry’ as an industry in which a textile manufacturer operates not more than 50 powerlooms in a factory during the relevant period.The appellant, Textiles Committee, argued before the High Court that although the term ‘manufacture’ was not defined under the Act, its meaning should be derived from Section 2(f) of the Central Excise Act, 1944, which includes processes incidental or ancillary to the completion of a manufactured product. Accordingly, it was contended that bleaching and dyeing constitute processes incidental to the manufacture of textiles and should therefore fall within the scope of ‘manufacture’ under Section 5A of the Act, making the levy of textile cess legally valid and justified.[Extracted from The Assessing Officer, Textiles Committee v. M/s. Premium Suiting Pvt. Ltd. & Another (2026 INSC 1158)]41. Under which provision of the Act is the term ‘powerloom’ defined?A. Section 2(a)B. Section 2(da)C. Section 2(db)D. Section 5AAnswer: B42. According to Section 2(db), a ‘powerloom industry’ refers to an industry in which a textile manufacturer operates not more than how many powerlooms in a factory during the relevant period?A. 125 powerloomsB. 140 powerloomsC. 50 powerloomsD. 100 powerloomsAnswer: C43. The appellant, Textiles Committee, contended that bleaching and dyeing should be treated as ‘manufacture’ primarily because:A. They necessarily result in the creation of a completely new commodity.B. They are processes incidental or ancillary to the completion of a manufactured textile product.C. They are expressly defined as manufacture under Section 2(db).D. They are independent activities unrelated to textile manufacturing.Answer: B44. Which of the following activities falls within the definition of ‘manufacturing process’ under Section 2(k) of the Factories Act, 1948?A. Washing or cleaning an article with a view to its use, sale or disposalB. Pumping oil, water or sewageC. Generating, transforming or transmitting powerD. All of the aboveAnswer: D45. The Factories Act, 1948, was enacted primarily to:A. Regulate industrial disputes between employers and employeesB. Consolidate and amend the law regulating labour in factoriesC. Regulate the registration of trade unionsD. Provide compensation for industrial accidentsAnswer: BX. The rationale underlying this principle is that the source, nature, and mode of acquisition of any undisclosed income, asset, or pecuniary resource are matters peculiarly and exclusively within the knowledge of the public servant. Such facts are not ordinarily accessible to the prosecution and are incapable of being established except through disclosure by the person concerned. Consequently, any income or asset not reflected in the disclosed or known sources of income falls within the realm of the accused’s special knowledge. The statutory scheme, read in conjunction with the principles underlying Section 109 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (Section 106 Evidence Act, 1872), places the obligation upon the public servant to furnish a satisfactory and credible explanation regarding the existence and acquisition of such assets.[Extracted from V. Gopalakrishanan v. State of Kerala (2026 INSC 1172)]46. Under which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, is the burden of proving a fact especially within a person's knowledge placed upon that person?A. Section 104B. Section 105C. Section 109D. Section 108Answer: C47. According to Illustration (b) of Section 109 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, if a person is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket, who bears the burden of proving that the person had a valid ticket?A. The railway authoritiesB. The prosecutionC. The person charged with travelling without a ticketD. The ticket examinerAnswer: C48. According to Illustration (a) of Section 109 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when a person performs an act with an intention different from that suggested by the character and circumstances of the act, the burden of proving such intention lies upon:A. The prosecutionB. The person performing the actC. The complainantD. The CourtAnswer: B49. Which of the following is NOT a recognised category of evidence under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?A. Oral evidenceB. Documentary evidenceC. Electronic evidenceD. Evidence based solely on judicial speculationAnswer: D50. How many sections are contained in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?A. 167B. 170C. 175D. 180Answer: BXI. The Court expressed serious doubts as to whether any court, other than the Supreme Court, has the authority to declare that its judicial decision cannot be cited as a precedent in subsequent cases. It clarified that stating a decision has been rendered in the peculiar facts and circumstances of a case is different from prohibiting its use as a precedent. Such an observation merely indicates that the outcome was influenced by the specific facts and might have been different under other circumstances. Courts may encounter exceptional situations requiring remedies to be suitably moulded to ensure justice, but they cannot grant relief that is not permissible under the law. Therefore, a decision rendered on peculiar facts does not lose its precedential value merely because the Court has described it as fact-specific. Such a qualification only explains the reasoning behind the decision and cannot expressly or impliedly prevent its citation in other cases.[Extracted, with edits and revision from Union of India v. Om Prakash, (W.P.(C) No. 5071/2025)]51. Which Article of the Constitution of India declares that the law laid down by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?A. Article 136B. Article 141C. Article 142D. Article 144Answer: B52. The doctrine of stare decisis is primarily associated with which of the following principles?A. Judicial independenceB. Separation of powersC. Adherence to judicial precedentsD. Judicial review of administrative actionsAnswer: C53. What is meant by the term ratio decidendi in judicial precedents?A. An incidental observation made by a judgeB. The legal principle or reason essential to the decision of a caseC. A dissenting opinion delivered by a judgeD. A statement made without reference to the facts of the caseAnswer: B54. Which of the following is NOT a constitutional qualification for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court?A. Being a citizen of IndiaB. Having served as a Judge of a High Court for at least five yearsC. Having been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten yearsD. Having attained the age of 45 yearsAnswer: D55. Under which Article of the Constitution can the Supreme Court grant special leave to appeal from a judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order passed by any court or tribunal in India, subject to constitutional exceptions?A. Article 132B. Article 133C. Article 136D. Article 137Answer: CXII. It is well-settled that the qualifications prescribed by the recruiting authority for a particular post are required to be satisfied in the manner in which they have been prescribed. The Court, while exercising judicial review, ordinarily cannot add to or alter the essential qualifications prescribed under the Recruitment Rules. The question as to whether a qualification possessed by a candidate is equivalent to the qualification prescribed is ordinarily within the domain of the employer or the competent expert body. This principle has been reiterated by this Court in Zahoor Ahmad Rather & Ors. v. Sheikh Imtiyaz Ahmad & Ors., Unnikrishnan C.V. & Ors. v. Union of India & Ors., and Shifana P.S. v. State of Kerala & Ors.[Extracted from Santosh B. Naik v. State of Goa & Ors. (2026 INSC 1089)]56. According to the passage, who is ordinarily competent to determine the equivalence of educational qualifications prescribed for recruitment?A. The Supreme CourtB. The High CourtC. The employer or competent expert bodyD. The candidate applying for the postAnswer: C57. Which of the following cases is associated with the principle that determining the equivalence of qualifications ordinarily falls within the domain of the employer or competent expert body?A. Zahoor Ahmad Rather v. Sheikh Imtiyaz AhmadB. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of KeralaC. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of IndiaD. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of IndiaAnswer: A58. Which of the following is NOT ordinarily a recognised ground for judicial review of administrative action?A. IllegalityB. IrrationalityC. Procedural improprietyD. Mere disagreement with the administrative authority's assessment of meritsAnswer: D59. Which of the following best explains the Doctrine of Eclipse?A. A law inconsistent with Fundamental Rights is permanently repealedB. A pre-Constitution law inconsistent with Fundamental Rights becomes inoperative to the extent of inconsistency but is not completely extinguishedC. Every unconstitutional law is automatically removed from the statute bookD. A law declared unconstitutional can never become operative againAnswer: B60. According to Article 13(3)(a), which of the following is included within the meaning of 'law'?A. OrdinancesB. NotificationsC. Customs or usages having the force of lawD. All of the aboveAnswer: DXIII. Mr. Saurav Roy, appearing for the Appellant, contended that Respondent No. 2 had incorrectly calculated the limitation period and the additional condonable period by overlooking the word “notwithstanding” in Section 61 and the expression “within forty-five days from the date of receipt of such order” in Section 62(1) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), read with Sections 421 and 423 of the Companies Act, 2013. He argued that Section 62 of the IBC provides a right of appeal before the Supreme Court, subject to a maximum limitation period of sixty days, including the condonable period. According to the Appellant, limitation begins from the date of receipt of the order rather than the date of its pronouncement. Therefore, since the order was received on 11 October 2023 and the appeal was filed on 21 November 2023, the appeal was filed within forty-one days and was consequently within the prescribed limitation period.[Extracted with edits and revisions from The Assistant Commissioner of Central Tax, CGST Division v. Sreenivasa Rao Ravinuthala & Anr., Civil Appeal No. 7882 of 2023]61. Section 421 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with:A. Appeal from orders of the Appellate TribunalB. Appeal from orders of the TribunalC. Powers of the National Company Law TribunalD. Constitution of the National Company Law Appellate TribunalAnswer: B62. Under Section 421(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, no appeal shall lie to the Appellate Tribunal against:A. An ex parte order of the TribunalB. An interim order of the TribunalC. An order made by the Tribunal with the consent of partiesD. An order passed against a company directorAnswer: C63. What is the prescribed limitation period for filing an appeal under Section 421(3) of the Companies Act, 2013?A. 30 daysB. 45 daysC. 60 daysD. 90 daysAnswer: B64. Section 423 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with:A. Appeal from orders of the TribunalB. Appeal to the Supreme CourtC. Review of orders of the Appellate TribunalD. Powers of the National Company Law TribunalAnswer: B65. An appeal under Section 423 of the Companies Act, 2013 may be filed before the Supreme Court on:A. Any question of law arising out of the Appellate Tribunal's orderB. Any question of factC. Any question of public importance, irrespective of its connection with the orderD. Any question relating exclusively to company managementAnswer: AXIV. The rules of natural justice require a reasonable opportunity of hearing to a Government servant before a decision is taken against him. These rules presuppose that the administrative and quasi-judicial inquiries are held in good faith and without bias. However, a complaint regarding violation of the rules of natural justice must be examined on the facts and circumstances of the case. There are different facets of natural justice, all of which or some of which may not apply in every case. It is, therefore, necessary to examine the nature of complaint and the consequences thereof. Ultimately, it comes to whether any prejudice has been caused to the Government servant on account of violation of natural justice or breach of any procedural requirement under the statutory Rules. However, every minor violation in observing the procedural requirement shall not vitiate the inquiry or the punishment imposed upon the delinquent employee, if it does not entail any prejudice to the Government servant. This Court has held on many occasions that a distinction has to be drawn between the cases of substantive violation and technical infringement of the rules of natural justice (see “Viveka Nand Sethi v. Chairman, J&K Bank Ltd. & Ors.”; “State of U.P. v. Neeraj Awasthi & Ors.”; “Mohd. Sartaj v. State of U.P. & Ors.”; “P.D. Agrawal v. State Bank of India & Ors.”).[Extracted from R. Saravanan v. Periyar University, Represented by its Registrar & Ors. (2026 INSC 1136)]66. According to the passage, administrative and quasi-judicial inquiries must be conducted:A. Strictly according to judicial procedures applicable to criminal trialsB. In good faith and without biasC. Only after obtaining judicial approvalD. Without allowing the Government servant to participateAnswer: B67. According to the passage, whether a violation of natural justice has occurred must be examined primarily on the basis of:A. The designation of the Government servantB. The nature of the punishment aloneC. The facts and circumstances of the particular caseD. The length of the disciplinary proceedingsAnswer: C68. Which of the following is NOT generally recognised as a form of bias under the principles of natural justice?A. Pecuniary biasB. Personal biasC. Subject-matter biasD. Judicial precedentAnswer: D69. Which landmark English case established that even administrative decisions affecting rights may attract the principles of natural justice?A. Ridge v. Baldwin (1964)B. Donoghue v. Stevenson (1932)C. Rylands v. Fletcher (1868)D. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1893)Answer: A70. The requirement of passing a speaking order is primarily associated with which principle?A. Doctrine of basic structureB. Principles of natural justiceC. Doctrine of eclipseD. Doctrine of territorial nexusAnswer: BXV. The Appellate Authority rejected the Assessees’ contention that the assessment proceedings were vitiated due to the Revenue’s failure to issue a notice under Section 143(2) of the Income Tax Act. It held that since the Assessees had participated in the assessment proceedings following the issuance of notices under Sections 148 and 142(1) of the Act, they could not subsequently challenge the proceedings at the appellate stage on the ground of non-issuance of notice under Section 143(2). Aggrieved by this decision, the Assessees approached the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT). The Tribunal, however, held that the failure to issue the mandatory notice under Section 143(2) rendered the assessment proceedings invalid and accordingly set aside the reassessment orders.[Extracted from Principal Commissioner of Income Tax, Bhubaneswar v. Orissa Mining Corporation Ltd. (2026 INSC 1171)]71. Section 143 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 primarily deals with:A. Income escaping assessmentB. Assessment of incomeC. Appeals before the Income Tax Appellate TribunalD. Revision of assessment ordersAnswer: B72. Under Section 143(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, which of the following adjustments may be made while processing a return?A. Any arithmetical error in the returnB. An incorrect claim apparent from information in the returnC. Disallowance of certain deductions claimed in a belated returnD. All of the aboveAnswer: D73. Under Section 143(1), where an assessee fails to respond to the intimation of proposed adjustments, such adjustments may be made after:A. 15 daysB. 30 daysC. 45 daysD. 60 daysAnswer: B74. Under Section 143(2), a notice may be issued where the Assessing Officer considers it necessary or expedient to ensure that the assessee has not:A. Understated incomeB. Computed excessive lossC. Underpaid taxD. All of the aboveAnswer: D75. The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal was established in which year?A. 1935B. 1941C. 1950D. 1961Answer: BXVI. Defamation is the harm or hurts done to a person's reputation, goodwill, or character. Libel and slander are the two main forms of defamation. Libel is the publication of a false statement with the intent to damage another person's reputation. The publication indicates that a third party should be made aware of it. Printed versions of things like essays, artwork, cartoons, monuments, etc. are required. Slander occurs when a false comment is made that damages another person's reputation. According to the ruling in Harsh Mendiratta v. Maharaj Singh, only the person who has been falsely accused can bring legal action—not his acquaintances, family, or relations.Even while a statement could seem benign at first glance, it occasionally has a deeper meaning. The plaintiff must establish this hidden meaning in order to bring a defamation lawsuit. Libel is the main topic of defamation in tort law. The claim must be proven to be defamatory in order to establish. Then it could be false things, written false drafts, defamatory elements, Published news, etc.If a defamation claim is successful, the plaintiff may get compensation in the form of damages, and in some circumstances, a court may grant an injunction to stop the publishing of particular materials that the plaintiff believes to be defamatory.[Extracted from The General Classification of Civil Wrong “Tort” in India, authored by Dr. Savita S. Rasam, Sairaj S. Suryavanshi, Utkarsh S. Patankar and Pranil P. Shah, published in the International Journal of Civil Law and Legal Research, 2022, Vol. 2, Issue 2]76. In the law of defamation, an innuendo arises when:A. A statement is defamatory in its ordinary and natural meaningB. A statement appears innocent but conveys a defamatory meaning when considered in light of surrounding circumstancesC. A defamatory statement is communicated only to the plaintiffD. A statement is made without reference to any identifiable personAnswer: B77. Which of the following constitutes an example of libel?A. A defamatory statement made during a private conversationB. A defamatory allegation published in a newspaperC. A defamatory remark made orally during a meetingD. A defamatory statement communicated through an ordinary telephone conversationAnswer: B78. Defamation under the law of torts primarily involves injury to a person's:A. ReputationB. Physical integrityC. PropertyD. Contractual rightsAnswer: A79. Which of the following is recognised as a defence to an action for defamation?A. Truth or justificationB. Fair comment or honest opinionC. PrivilegeD. All of the aboveAnswer: D80. Which of the following may defeat the defence of qualified privilege?A. The statement was made in writing.B. The statement was communicated to a single person.C. The statement was actuated by malice.D. The statement concerned a public official.Answer: CXVII. The present proceedings relate to the continuing degradation of the Jojari-Bandi-Luni river ecosystem and the need for coordinated, effective and time-bound measures for its restoration and protection.By its order dated 29th September 2026, the Court considered the reports and recommendations of the High-Level Ecosystem Oversight Committee, the status reports submitted by the State of Rajasthan and the submissions of the parties. The Court noted persistent sources of pollution, inadequate pollution-control infrastructure and shortcomings in enforcement. Despite earlier directions, several issues remained unresolved, necessitating a proactive and preventive approach to restoring the river ecosystem.Accordingly, the Court issued directions for removing unauthorised discharge points, taking action against illegal industrial activities and mining, reviewing guidelines for captive Effluent Treatment Plants, strengthening effluent treatment infrastructure, preserving the natural flow of rivers and completing remediation measures. The State was further directed to coordinate with the Committee and finalise a Comprehensive Resolution Plan containing specific timelines and measurable milestones.[Extracted with edits from In Re: 2 Million Lives at Risk, Contamination in Jojari River, Rajasthan (2026 INSC 1203)]81. The proceedings concerning the Jojari-Bandi-Luni river ecosystem primarily relate to:A. Inter-State water-sharing disputesB. Continuing environmental degradation and restoration of the river ecosystemC. Construction of hydroelectric projectsD. Acquisition of land for industrial developmentAnswer: B82. Which Committee submitted reports and recommendations concerning the restoration of the Jojari-Bandi-Luni river ecosystem?A. Central Water CommissionB. National River Conservation AuthorityC. High-Level Ecosystem Oversight CommitteeD. National Biodiversity AuthorityAnswer: C83. Which State was directed to coordinate with the Committee and finalise a Comprehensive Resolution Plan for the restoration of the river ecosystem?A. GujaratB. RajasthanC. Madhya PradeshD. MaharashtraAnswer: B84. The Court directed the State to finalise a Comprehensive Resolution Plan containing:A. Financial compensation for industrial operators onlyB. Specific timelines and measurable milestonesC. Provisions for transferring river management to private companiesD. Guidelines exclusively concerning agricultural irrigationAnswer: B85. Which of the following statutes primarily provides for the prevention and control of water pollution in India?A. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974B. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986C. Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980D. Biological Diversity Act, 2002Answer: AXVIII. There is no doubt that the thumb injury was found at the time of the arrest and the accused had got it attended by a doctor on 01.09.2011. The explanation of the accused is that she had visited ‘Mani Mahesh’ and while traveling her thumb got crushed in the car door and, therefore, she got the wound stitched. She had herself produced the OPD slip of her treatment. PW-20 also states that the accused had herself produced the OPD slip. Now, what is important is that PW-20 does not state that he had come to know from the statements of PW-4 and PW-18 that the accused had a thumb injury. Further, PW-20 does not disclose that he had arrested the accused after recording the statement of PW-4 and PW-18. At this stage, it would be useful to consider the statement of PW-4 during cross examination.[Extracted from State of Himachal Pradesh v. Anchla @ Chanchla (2026 INSC 1074)]86. Which document was produced by the accused to support her explanation regarding the thumb injury?A. Medical fitness certificateB. Forensic examination reportC. Outpatient Department (OPD) slipD. Post-mortem reportAnswer: C87. Which of the following cases laid down the five golden principles governing the appreciation of circumstantial evidence?A. Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of MaharashtraB. K.M. Nanavati v. State of MaharashtraC. Bachan Singh v. State of PunjabD. State of Rajasthan v. BalchandAnswer: A88. Which Chapter of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, deals with the arrest of persons?A. Chapter IIIB. Chapter IVC. Chapter VD. Chapter VIAnswer: C89. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, is an arrested person entitled to meet an advocate of their choice during interrogation?A. Section 35B. Section 36C. Section 38D. Section 43Answer: C90. Under Section 35(1)(a) of the BNSS, 2023, a police officer may arrest a person without a warrant when:A. The person commits a non-cognizable offence in the presence of the police officer.B. The person commits a cognizable offence in the presence of the police officer.C. The person is suspected of committing a civil wrong.D. The person refuses to disclose information relating to a civil dispute.Answer: BXIX. In this context, it is pertinent to observe that PW-2 Aftab Ahmad had deposed that he had divorced the Defendant on 17.10.2008 and there was also a written document. It is admitted by the Defendant that a Suit for declaration in regard to the Talaq/divorce has been filed by Aftab Ahmad, which is being contested by the Defendant and is still pending.It is still not proved that the Defendant is legally divorced, as no Talaq-nama has been produced in the present proceedings and the factum of Talaq is disputed. It is thus, established that the Defendant came to reside in the property as the wife of Aftab Ahmad, who had earlier been in occupation of the suit property.[Extracted from Sheikh Firozuddin v. Farida, RSA No. 316/2015]91. Which of the following forms of Talaq is traditionally regarded as the most approved form under Sunni Muslim Law?A. Talaq-ul-BiddatB. Talaq-e-HasanC. Talaq-e-AhsanD. IlaAnswer: C92. The term 'Iddat' under Muslim Personal Law refers to:A. The amount of dower payable to the wifeB. The prescribed waiting period following divorce or the husband's deathC. The marriage ceremony conducted under Muslim LawD. The agreement for payment of maintenanceAnswer: B93. The term 'Iddat' under Muslim Personal Law refers to:A. The amount of dower payable to the wifeB. The prescribed waiting period following divorce or the husband's deathC. The marriage ceremony conducted under Muslim LawD. The agreement for payment of maintenanceAnswer: B94. Under Muslim Personal Law, the term 'Talaq-e-Bain' refers to:A. Irrevocable divorceB. Revocable divorceC. Divorce through mutual agreementD. Divorce granted exclusively by a courtAnswer: A95. Under the traditional doctrine of Khula, dissolution of marriage is generally initiated by:A. The husbandB. The wifeC. The husband's fatherD. The marriage registrarAnswer: BXX. In furtherance, the Court pointed out another critical observation - Sohan Singh had voluntarily abjured his rights under the agreement dated 14.01.1952 vide letter dated 04.10.1954. Once a person willingly puts an end to the performance of continuous obligations set out in the agreement, he cannot thereafter raise a claim under Section 53A of Transfer of Property Act. Thus, the undisputed factual position as discerned by the High Court was that there was no transaction between Sohan Singh and Sobha Singh or with anybody else for the purpose of construction over the said plot/suit property.[Extracted from Smt. Rano Singh and Others v. Sh. Gurbax Singh (D) Through LRs and Others (2026 INSC 1137)]96. Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, embodies which of the following doctrines?A. Doctrine of Lis PendensB. Doctrine of Part PerformanceC. Doctrine of ElectionD. Doctrine of SubrogationAnswer: B97. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied by a transferee seeking protection under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?A. The transferee must have performed or be willing to perform their part of the contract.B. The transferee must establish ownership through adverse possession.C. The transferee must obtain permission from the District Magistrate.D. The transferee must establish that the transferor has abandoned the property.Answer: A98. Under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transferee must have taken possession of the property:A. In part performance of the contractB. Through unlawful occupationC. Exclusively through adverse possessionD. Without the knowledge of the transferorAnswer: A99. Which of the following statements regarding the doctrine of part performance is incorrect?A. It requires a qualifying contract relating to immovable property.B. It may protect possession taken or continued in part performance of the contract.C. It requires the transferee to have performed or be willing to perform their part of the contract.D. It automatically confers legal ownership upon the transferee.Answer: D100. Under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the contract must be:A. Oral and supported by witnessesB. In writing and signed by the transferor or someone on their behalfC. Executed exclusively before a MagistrateD. Registered in every case irrespective of the date of executionAnswer: BXXI. The essence of utilitarianism lies in the belief that moral actions are those that promote the greatest happiness for the greatest number. Jeremy Bentham’s An Introduction to the Principles of Morals and Legislation (1789) offered a radical departure from moral absolutism by proposing that human behaviour should be judged solely by its consequences—specifically, its capacity to increase pleasure and reduce pain. Bentham developed the "felicific calculus," a formulaic method for evaluating the moral worth of actions by measuring various factors including intensity, duration, certainty, and extent of resulting pleasure or pain.John Stuart Mill advanced this philosophy in Utilitarianism (1861) by arguing for the qualitative distinction between higher and lower pleasures. For Mill, intellectual and moral pleasures—such as reading poetry or engaging in philosophical discourse—were superior to mere physical pleasures. Mill’s refinements made utilitarianism more palatable to critics who saw Bentham’s model as overly mechanistic and dismissive of cultural and emotional complexity.The universal appeal of utilitarianism lay in its simplicity and adaptability. It could be applied to individual actions, policies, and legal systems, offering a flexible tool for assessing justice in terms of public welfare rather than abstract principles or divine laws.[Extracted from Dr. Balaraj Saraf, “The Fundamental Principle of Utilitarianism and Its Impact on World Jurisprudence,” International Journal of Current Science (IJCSPUB), Volume 15, Issue 2, June 2025, ISSN: 2250-1770.]101. The central principle of utilitarianism is based on:A. The supremacy of natural rightsB. The greatest happiness of the greatest numberC. The absolute authority of the StateD. The divine origin of moralityAnswer: B102. Who is regarded as the principal exponent of classical utilitarianism?A. Immanuel KantB. John AustinC. Jeremy BenthamD. Thomas HobbesAnswer: C103. Jeremy Bentham's An Introduction to the Principles of Morals and Legislation was published in:A. 1764B. 1789C. 1832D. 1861Answer: B104. According to Jeremy Bentham, the moral worth of an action should primarily be determined by:A. The intention of the legislatureB. Its conformity with divine commandmentsC. Its consequences in producing pleasure or painD. Its consistency with established customsAnswer: C105. Which of the following concepts was developed by Jeremy Bentham to evaluate the moral consequences of actions?A. Categorical ImperativeB. Felicific CalculusC. Social ContractD. General WillAnswer: BXXII. The most important English-language international law treatise spanning the twentieth century is Lassa Oppenheim's International Law: A Treatise that was first published in two volumes (on Peace and War & Neutrality) in 1905 and 1906.1 Oppenheim also prepared two volumes for the second edition of 1912.2 When Oppenheim died in 1919, he had completed much of the work for another edition; his former student, Ronald F. Roxburgh, edited and supplemented Oppenheim's notes and the two volumes of the third edition appeared in 1920 and 1921.' Arnold McNair prepared the two volumes (the second volume appeared first and was renamed Disputes, War & Neutrality) of the fourth edition of 1926 and 1928.' Hersch Lauterpacht, who had worked with McNair on the fourth edition, edited the fifth edition of 1935 and 1937 (the second volume appeared first),' the sixth edition of 1940 and 1947 (again in reverse order), the seventh edition of 1948 and 1952, and the first volume (Peace, the only volume appearing) of the eighth edition in 1955.8 Now, at long last, in 1993, the first volume of the ninth edition (on Peace) prepared by two eminent international lawyers, Sir Robert Jennings and Sir Arthur Watts, has appeared.The new Oppenheim is monumental in many ways. The first volume of the ninth edition alone fills two books with some 176 pages of prefatory material, 1,333 pages of text, and 66 pages of indices. It costs £440.00. There are thousands of footnoted references. Jennings & Watts plan to prepare a second volume dealing with disputes and armed conflict and a third volume treating international organization. That the ninth edition of Oppenheim is a source book of great importance, albeit an expensive one aimed principally at practitioners, is apparent at first glance.[Extracted from Mark Weston Janis, “The New Oppenheim and Its Theory of International Law” (1996)]106. Who authored the internationally recognised treatise International Law: A Treatise?A. Hersch LauterpachtB. Lassa OppenheimC. Hugo GrotiusD. John AustinAnswer: B107. The first edition of Lassa Oppenheim's International Law: A Treatise was published in:A. 1899 and 1900B. 1905 and 1906C. 1912 and 1913D. 1920 and 1921Answer: B108. Who prepared the fourth edition of Oppenheim's International Law: A Treatise?A. Ronald F. RoxburghB. Arnold McNairC. Sir Robert JenningsD. Sir Arthur WattsAnswer: B109. Who prepared the ninth edition of Oppenheim's International Law: A Treatise?A. Sir Robert Jennings and Sir Arthur WattsB. Hersch Lauterpacht and Arnold McNairC. Ronald F. Roxburgh and Hersch LauterpachtD. Hugo Grotius and Emer de VattelAnswer: A110. Which of the following works was authored by Hugo Grotius?A. The Law of NationsB. De Jure Belli ac PacisC. International Law: A TreatiseD. The Concept of LawAnswer: BXXIII. The end of World War I led to the establishment of the League of Nations, marking the initial step toward the development of a global governance structure. It was established as a part of the Treaty of Versailles. It is worth noting that, although the establishment of the League was a visionary step in international law, it ultimately failed to achieve its objectives. The failure can be attributed to several key issues that the League faced. Firstly, there were fundamental structural inadequacies related to the enforcement mechanism; there was no army or police force that could compel member states to comply with the decisions or sanctions imposed by the League, which were recommendatory in nature.[Extracted from Soham Joshi, “The United Nations in Crisis: Structural Limitations, Systemic Failures, and the Need for Reforms in the Contemporary International Law,” International Journal of Law Management & Humanities (IJLMH), Vol. 8, Issue 6]111. The League of Nations was established in the aftermath of which major historical event?A. The French RevolutionB. The First World WarC. The Second World WarD. The Cold WarAnswer: B112. The League of Nations was established in the aftermath of which major historical event?A. The French RevolutionB. The First World WarC. The Second World WarD. The Cold WarAnswer: B113. The Covenant of the League of Nations formed part of which treaty?B. Treaty of WestphaliaA. Treaty of VersaillesC. Treaty of Paris, 1856D. Treaty of UtrechtAnswer: B114. The United Nations Charter was signed at which conference?A. Yalta ConferenceB. Potsdam ConferenceC. San Francisco ConferenceD. Bretton Woods ConferenceAnswer: C115. The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a term of:A. One yearB. Two yearsC. Three yearsD. Five yearsAnswer: BXXIV. Jean-Jacques Rousseau, a prominent eighteenth-century philosopher, made significant contributions to political and moral philosophy, particularly through his theory of the social contract. His ideas offered a new understanding of politics, society, morality and the legitimacy of political authority. In his influential work, The Social Contract (1762), Rousseau argued that individuals voluntarily enter into a social contract to establish an organised political community. This agreement forms the basis of political obligation and legitimate governmental authority. According to Rousseau, individuals in the state of nature are naturally free and equal. However, as human relationships and social interactions become increasingly complex, individuals come together to overcome common difficulties and establish a collective political order.A central feature of Rousseau's political philosophy is the concept of the general will, which represents the common interest of the political community rather than merely the sum of individual preferences. Rousseau maintained that governmental decisions and laws should reflect this general will. He emphasised popular sovereignty and believed that citizens exercise their sovereignty by participating directly in the formulation of laws and public policies. His philosophy also addressed moral questions concerning individual freedom, equality and human well-being. Rousseau believed that human beings are naturally good but that social institutions and inequalities can corrupt their original character. He therefore advocated a social order that preserves individual freedom while promoting collective welfare. Education also occupied an important place in his philosophy. Rousseau regarded education as essential to the moral and intellectual development of individuals and advocated an educational system that cultivates virtue, independence, responsibility and good citizenship.[xtracted from Vimlesh Kumar and Aashutosh Kumar Aahire, “Revisiting Rousseau's Social Contract Theory Through the Lens of Politico-Moral Philosophy,” International Journal of Political Science and Governance, 2024, Vol. 6, Issue 1]116. Jean-Jacques Rousseau is primarily associated with which of the following theories?A. Command Theory of LawB. Social Contract TheoryC. Pure Theory of LawD. Historical Theory of LawAnswer: B117. Jean-Jacques Rousseau's famous work The Social Contract was published in:A. 1651B. 1689C. 1762D. 1789Answer: C118. According to Rousseau, the legitimacy of political authority is primarily derived from:A. Divine authorityB. Hereditary successionC. The social contract and the general willD. Military powerAnswer: C119. According to Rousseau, individuals in the state of nature are:A. Naturally unequal and dependentB. Naturally free and equalC. Subject to an absolute sovereignD. Governed by established political institutionsAnswer: B120. Which of the following concepts occupies a central position in Rousseau's political philosophy?A. General WillB. GrundnormC. Sovereign CommandD. Rule of RecognitionAnswer: APractice the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – November 2026 and stay tuned to Legal Bites for monthly CLAT PG mock tests.Important LinkLaw Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary, and Entrance Exams