Legal Bites presents the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – September 2026, carefully designed to sharpen your preparation strategy and elevate your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In today’s highly competitive landscape, where question patterns are becoming increasingly dynamic and judgment-centric, consistent practice with well-curated, concept-driven questions is indispensable.While preparing this mock test, we have closely aligned with the latest CLAT PG 2026 pattern, ensuring comprehensive coverage of all subjects prescribed in the syllabus. The paper is thoughtfully structured to mirror the actual CLAT PG examination, enabling aspirants to gain familiarity with the exam format, question styles, and difficulty level. Regular practice with these questions will not only strengthen conceptual understanding but also improve speed, accuracy, and exam temperament.This mock test further functions as a reliable self-assessment tool, allowing candidates to evaluate their performance, identify areas of improvement, and refine their preparation in a systematic manner.All case-based questions included in this mock are sourced from significant judgments of the Supreme Court and various High Courts, primarily delivered in August 2026, ensuring relevance, precision, and alignment with the jurisprudence-focused nature of the CLAT PG examination.Attempt the mock questions below and take a confident step toward securing admission to your dream law school with Legal Bites.CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice QuestionsSeptember 2026I. In the 19th century, Sir Henry Maine was a well-known British comparative law scholar and jurist. His contributions to the study of jurisprudence and legal history, in particular, have had a lasting influence on our knowledge of the evolution of legal systems. He also founded the English historical school of law. He carried forward the thoughts and views of famous jurist Savigny who was the ‘Father of historical school.’ Sir Maine is best renowned for his innovative work in the field of historical law.He argued that societies progress through distinct stages of development in their legal systems, from primitive customs and traditions to more advanced and formalized legal codes. In his influential book "Ancient Law" (1861), he examined the development of legal systems and emphasized the shift from civilizations with a status-based legal system to societies with contract-based legal systems.When Maine served as a member of law on the Council of the Governor-General of India from 1861 and 1869, he thoroughly researched the Indian legal system. Sir Henry Maine came to the conclusion in his comparative study that practically all ancient societies connected to Hindu, Roman, AngloSaxon, Hebrew, and Germanic communities had developed their legal systems and other social institutions in a manner like that of a palace. Maine introduced the concept of "status" in his analysis of customary law. He contended that in primitive societies, individuals were defined by their social status, which determined their rights and obligations. Customary law was closely tied to these status distinctions, regulating relationships between different groups within the society.[Extracted from: Aditya Trivedi, “Henry Maine’s Contribution to Law,” Indian Journal of Integrated Research in Law, Volume IV, Issue II, ISSN: 2583-0538]1. According to the passage, Sir Henry Maine is particularly associated with which school of jurisprudence?A. Analytical SchoolB. Historical SchoolC. Sociological SchoolD. Natural Law SchoolAnswer: B2. Consider the following statements based on the passage:1. Savigny is described as the Father of the Historical School.2. Maine carried forward the thoughts and views of Savigny.3. Maine regarded social status as irrelevant to the rights and obligations of individuals in primitive societies.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3Answer: B3. According to Maine's understanding of primitive societies, an individual's rights and obligations were primarily determined by:A. Free contractual arrangementsB. Legislative enactmentsC. Social statusD. Judicial precedentsAnswer: C4. Sir Henry Maine's Ancient Law, as mentioned in the passage, was published in:A. 1851B. 1861C. 1869D. 1871Answer: B5. Which of the following ancient communities is NOT mentioned in the passage as forming part of Maine's comparative study?A. HinduB. RomanC. HebrewD. EgyptianAnswer: DII. It is well known that Jeremy Bentham is regarded as the founder of positivism in modern sense of its term. He defined law as “an assemblage of signs, declarative of a volition, conceived or adopted by the sovereign, concerning the conduct to be observed in a certain case by certain person or class of persons who are supposed to be the subject to the sovereign power”.Bentham’s philosophy was named as the “Utilitarian Individualism”. He argued that the purpose of “law” is to free an individual from bondage and from restraints on his freedom. His principle of utilitarianism, therefore, emphasized that the ultimate end and objective of the legislation should be “the greatest happiness of the greatest number of people”.Utility, thus, was defined as being “the property or tendency of a thing to prevent some evil or produce some good; the consequences of which are either pleasure or pain”.[Extracted from Mihir S. Asolekar, “Universal Human Rights: A Utilitarian Perspective,” Indian Journal of Law and Legal Research, Vol. II, Issue II, ISSN: 2582-8878.]6. Jeremy Bentham is regarded as the founder of which school of jurisprudence in its modern sense?A. Historical SchoolB. Sociological SchoolC. Legal PositivismD. Natural Law SchoolAnswer: C7. Bentham’s philosophy is described in the passage as:A. Utilitarian IndividualismB. Social Contract TheoryC. Historical MaterialismD. Natural Rights IndividualismAnswer: A8. According to Jeremy Bentham, which of the following best describes the nature of law?A. A set of moral principles derived from natural justiceB. An assemblage of signs expressing the will of the sovereignC. A collection of customs developed through historical practicesD. A system of judicial precedents recognised by societyAnswer: B9. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects Bentham's concept of utility?A. Utility is determined exclusively by the moral intentions behind an action.B. Utility refers to the conformity of an action with established legal rules.C. Utility is the tendency of a thing to prevent evil or produce good, resulting in pleasure or pain.D. Utility is the sovereign's unrestricted authority to determine right and wrong.Answer: C10. A legislature proposes two alternative policies. The first benefits a small section of society but causes widespread suffering, while the second produces greater overall happiness among the population. According to Bentham's utilitarian philosophy, which approach should the legislature adopt?A. The first policy, because individual interests must always prevail.B. The second policy, because legislation should promote the greatest overall happiness.C. Either policy, because the sovereign's will alone determines its desirability D. Neither policy, because consequences are irrelevant to the validity of legislation answerAnswer: BIII. The United States of America and Panama agreed upon two treaties in 1977, namely the Panama Canal Treaty and the Treaty Concerning the Permanent Neutrality and Operation of the Panama Canal, in the US capital city of Washington. However, in order to attain ratification, the treaties were required to receive the consent of the Senate. In pursuance of the same, the Senate held comprehensive deliberations and the ensuing vote gave consent to approval. The treaties entered into force on 1st October, 1979.There were certain modifications that had to be formulated for the approval instrument with respect to the treaty of Permanent Neutrality and Operation of the Panama Canal. These alterations were settled upon by Panama. These amendments were to establish preferential rights in favour of the United States as had not been stated in the earlier document and as a result it had to be followed in lines with the right to act in case of any circumstance that shall effect the movement of vessels.[Extracted from Ridhi Suri and Pranjal Tomar, “Reservation under Vienna Convention of Law of Treaties Aide or Impediment to Global Relations,” International Journal of Law Management & Humanities, Vol. 3, Issue 4]11. Which of the following treaties were concluded between the United States of America and Panama in 1977?A. The Panama Canal Treaty and the Treaty of WashingtonB. The Panama Canal Treaty and the Treaty Concerning the Permanent Neutrality and Operation of the Panama CanalC. The Treaty of Permanent Sovereignty and the Panama Navigation TreatyD. The Panama Canal Treaty and the Treaty of International Maritime SecurityAnswer: B12. On which date did the two treaties between the United States and Panama enter into force?A. 1st October, 1977B. 1st January, 1978C. 1st October, 1979D. 31st December, 1979Answer: C13. What was the primary purpose of the modifications made to the Treaty Concerning the Permanent Neutrality and Operation of the Panama Canal?A. To transfer complete ownership of the Panama Canal to the United StatesB. To establish preferential rights in favour of the United States that were absent from the original treatyC. To terminate Panama's obligations under international lawD. To place the Panama Canal under the exclusive jurisdiction of the United NationsAnswer: B14. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the passage regarding the modifications to the treaty?A. The modifications were imposed unilaterally by the United States without Panama's consent.B. The modifications prohibited the United States from taking action concerning the movement of vessels.C. The modifications were accepted by Panama and recognised certain preferential rights of the United States concerning circumstances affecting vessel movement.D. The modifications resulted in the immediate termination of both treaties.Answer: C15. In which year did the United States of America and Panama conclude the Panama Canal Treaties?A. 1967B. 1975C. 1977D. 1979Answer: CIV. The first major step toward forming the United Nations occurred with the signing of the Atlantic Charter on August 14, 1941. This was a joint declaration between U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt and British Prime Minister Winston Churchill. It outlined shared goals for the post-war world, including:No territorial expansionPeople's self-determination Free tradePeace and security cooperation on a global scale Disarmament of aggressor nationsThe Atlantic Charter established the philosophical foundation for a new international order, despite its informal nature. The Declaration by United Nations (January 1, 1942)The term "United Nations" was officially coined by President Roosevelt and was first used in the Declaration by United Nations, signed on January 1, 1942. In this declaration, 26 nations fighting the Axis Powers pledged to uphold the Atlantic Charter's principles and work together to fight tyranny. It represented international cooperation and marked the official use of the name "United Nations" for the first time. The Moscow and Tehran Conferences (1943)The foreign ministers of the Allied Powers—China, the Soviet Union, the United States, and the United Kingdom—convened in 1943 at the Moscow Conference that an international organization was needed to keep the peace after the war. This idea was further developed during the Tehran Conference later that year, where the leaders of the "Big Three"—Roosevelt, Churchill, and Stalin—reaffirmed their support for the formation of such an organization.[Extracted from The Emergence of United Nation Organisation: Origin of UN by Ningombam Nungshengba and Dr. Pushpraj Singh, International Journal of Research Publication and Reviews, Vol. 6, Issue 5, May 2025]16. Arrange the following events in their correct chronological order:1. Moscow Conference2. Declaration by United Nations3. Atlantic Charter4. Tehran ConferenceSelect the correct answer:A. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4B. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1C. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4D. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4Answer: A17. Which of the following countries participated in the Four-Nation Declaration associated with the Moscow Conference of 1943?A. United States, United Kingdom, Soviet Union and FranceB. United States, United Kingdom, China and JapanC. United States, United Kingdom, Soviet Union and ChinaD. United States, Soviet Union, Germany and ChinaAnswer: C18. The Tehran Conference of 1943 is particularly associated with which of the following developments?A. The adoption of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.B. The establishment of the United Nations General Assembly.C. The reaffirmation by Roosevelt, Churchill and Stalin of their support for a post-war international organisation.D. The adoption of the principle of compulsory jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice.Answer: C19. The Moscow Conference of 1943 was an important development in the formation of the United Nations because:A. It adopted the final text of the United Nations Charter.B. It recognised the necessity of establishing a general international organisation for maintaining international peace and security.C. It established the International Court of Justice to adjudicate disputes between Allied Powers.D. It formally dissolved the League of Nations and transferred its powers to the United Nations.Answer: B20. Consider the following statements regarding the Atlantic Charter:1. It was a joint declaration between Franklin D. Roosevelt and Winston Churchill.2. It recognised the principle of self-determination of peoples.3. It established a legally enforceable mechanism for collective security.4. It advocated the disarmament of aggressor nations.Which of the statements given above are correct?A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: BV. Protection and sustainable management of groundwater resources constitute an equally important aspect of environmental restoration in the present matter. Excessive dependence upon groundwater for industrial purposes, coupled with contamination of surface water bodies, has placed considerable stress on the groundwater resources and has contributed to the progressive depletion of the water table in the affected regions. The State Government shall, therefore, formulate a comprehensive strategy for sustainable groundwater management, including regulation of groundwater extraction by industrial units, promotion of reuse and recycling of treated wastewater, augmentation of groundwater recharge, periodic assessment and monitoring of groundwater levels and quality, and adoption of such other scientific and regulatory measures as may be necessary to ensure long-term conservation and sustainable utilisation of groundwater resources. We emphasize that no industries which are water intensive shall be henceforth permitted in areas which have been identified as dark zones (over-exploited zones) with reference to the groundwater availability.[Extracted from In Re: 2 Million Lives at Risk, Contamination in Jojari River, Rajasthan (2026 INSC 812)]21. The requirement of periodic assessment and monitoring of groundwater levels and quality primarily seeks to:A. Determine the commercial value of groundwater for private industriesB. Replace environmental regulation with voluntary industrial complianceC. Facilitate evidence-based groundwater conservation and sustainable resource managementD. Eliminate the need for groundwater recharge measuresAnswer: C22. Consider the following statements based on the passage:1. The State Government is required to formulate a comprehensive groundwater management strategy.2. All existing industries operating in dark zones must immediately be closed.3. Reuse and recycling of treated wastewater form part of the proposed conservation strategy.4. Periodic assessment of groundwater quality and levels is contemplated.Which of the statements given above are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: B23. An industrial company proposes to establish a new water-intensive manufacturing unit in an area officially classified as a dark zone. The company argues that it will install advanced wastewater treatment facilities and comply with pollution control standards. In light of the passage, which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion?A. The industry must be permitted because wastewater treatment eliminates groundwater concerns.B. The industry may operate if it obtains consent from the State Pollution Control Board.C. The industry cannot be permitted because the passage expressly prohibits water-intensive industries in identified dark zones.D. The industry may be permitted if it provides financial compensation for groundwater extraction.Answer: C24. The restriction imposed upon water-intensive industries in the passage specifically applies to:A. All industrial areas irrespective of groundwater availabilityB. Areas situated within the boundaries of protected forestsC. Areas identified as dark zones or over-exploited groundwater zonesD. All areas where surface water bodies are contaminatedAnswer: C25. Which of the following measures is NOT expressly mentioned in the passage as part of the State Government's groundwater management strategy?A. Regulation of groundwater extraction by industrial unitsB. Promotion of reuse and recycling of treated wastewaterC. Periodic monitoring of groundwater levels and qualityD. Complete prohibition of all agricultural activities in groundwater-stressed regionsAnswer: DVI. One has to keep in mind that the disputes arising after the commencement of the IR Code are governed by the new definition which Parliament has enacted in Section 2(p). The practical effect of altering the Bangalore Water Supply (supra) ratio would thus fall upon legacy rights, liabilities and proceedings arising under the repealed ID Act. It would change the goalposts after parties have travelled substantial distances through the adjudicatory process and would require pending matters to be reassessed under a standard of which the parties were unaware when the causes of action arose. The triple test in Bangalore Water Supply (supra) has, for nearly five decades, kept the doors of industrial adjudication open to those who labour within organised undertakings. Those doors I decline to close.[Extracted from State of Uttar Pradesh v. Jai Bir Singh (2026 INSC 897)]26. According to the passage, disputes arising after the commencement of the Industrial Relations Code are governed by:A. The definition of industry under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947B. The triple test laid down in Bangalore Water SupplyC. The new definition enacted under Section 2(p) of the Industrial Relations CodeD. The definition developed exclusively through judicial precedentsAnswer: C27. What is the principal concern expressed in the passage regarding alteration of the Bangalore Water Supply ratio?A. It would automatically invalidate all industrial settlements.B. It would retrospectively affect legacy rights, liabilities and pending proceedings under the repealed Industrial Disputes Act.C. It would eliminate Parliament's authority to define industry.D. It would prevent the establishment of new industrial tribunals.Answer: B28. The triple test referred to in the passage was formulated in which of the following landmark judgments?A. State of Bombay v. Hospital Mazdoor SabhaB. Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. RajappaC. Workmen of Dimakuchi Tea Estate v. Management of Dimakuchi Tea EstateD. Safdarjung Hospital v. Kuldip Singh SethiAnswer: B29. The concluding observation, "Those doors I decline to close", signifies the judge's intention to:A. Preserve the protection and accessibility of industrial adjudication established under the Bangalore Water Supply precedent.B. Restrict access to industrial adjudication to government employees.C. Abolish the distinction between industrial and non-industrial establishments.D. Apply the Industrial Relations Code retrospectively to every pending proceeding.Answer: A30. An industrial dispute arose under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and remained pending after the commencement of the Industrial Relations Code. Based on the reasoning in the passage, which approach would be most consistent with the judge's observations?A. Automatically dismiss the proceeding because the earlier Act has been repealed.B. Reassess the dispute exclusively under the new definition, irrespective of when the cause of action arose.C. Preserve the applicable legal framework governing legacy rights and proceedings rather than alter the governing judicial standard retrospectively.D Transfer the dispute to a constitutional court for fresh adjudication.Answer: CVII. Section 4 of the Hindu Succession Act does not, by itself, determine whether a property is self-acquired, ancestral, joint family or coparcenary property. Its primary purpose is to give overriding effect to the provisions of the Act in matters governed by it, thereby excluding any inconsistent rule, interpretation, custom or usage of Hindu law. The nature and character of a property must, therefore, be determined independently on the basis of its source of acquisition, the nature of the rights held by the predecessor and the manner in which those rights passed to his successors.In the present case, the appellant's claim of ownership is admittedly based on the allotment of land to his grandfather, Chutra Ram. However, the plaint contains no specific assertion that the land was allotted to a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) or that Chutra Ram held it in his capacity as the karta of such a family. Without these essential foundational facts, the property cannot be treated as HUF or coparcenary property merely because the appellant is a descendant of the original allottee.Consequently, following the intestate death of Chutra Ram, the succession to his estate must be determined in accordance with the Hindu Succession Act, particularly Section 8 read with the Schedule. While Section 4 establishes the overriding authority of the statutory provisions, Section 8 identifies the legal heirs entitled to inherit the deceased's estate.[Extracted from Devaram v. Khetaram & Ors., S.B. Civil First Appeal No. 221/2026]31. According to the passage, which of the following factors is relevant in determining whether property is ancestral, self-acquired or coparcenary property?A. The relationship between the present owner and the original allottee aloneB. The number of generations that have possessed the propertyC. The source of acquisition, nature of the predecessor's rights and manner of devolutionD. The application of Section 4 of the Hindu Succession Act aloneAnswer: C32. What is the primary legal effect of Section 4(1)(a) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?A. It abolishes all customs and usages under Hindu law, irrespective of their subject matter.B. It gives overriding effect to the provisions of the Act over pre-existing Hindu law, customs and usages in matters for which the Act makes provision.C. It permits customary Hindu law to prevail over statutory provisions where the custom is ancient and established.D. It applies only to customs relating to ancestral and coparcenary property.Answer: B33. What is the principal distinction between Sections 4 and 8 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, as explained in the passage?A. Section 4 governs ancestral property, while Section 8 governs self-acquired propertyB. Section 4 determines the character of property, while Section 8 determines its market valueC. Section 4 gives primacy to the statutory scheme, while Section 8 determines the heirs upon whom the estate devolvesD. Section 4 applies exclusively to coparcenary property, while Section 8 applies exclusively to HUF propertyAnswer: C34. Which of the following circumstances would most directly support a claim that land allotted to an individual constituted HUF property?A. The allottee had several children and grandchildrenB. The land remained in the possession of the family after the allottee's deathC. The allotment was made in favour of the HUF or the allottee held the land in his capacity as its kartaD. The land was agricultural property situated in a rural areaAnswer: C35. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):Assertion (A): Property allotted to a grandfather cannot automatically be presumed to be HUF property merely because his grandson claims an interest in it.Reason (R): The character of property depends upon the source of acquisition, nature of ownership and manner of devolution, rather than the claimant's relationship with the original allottee alone.Choose the correct answer:A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of AB. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of AC. A is true, but R is falseD. A is false, but R is trueAnswer: AVIII. The constitutional mandate of furnishing the grounds of arrest in writing to the person arrested has been explained in Pankaj Bansal (supra), where the Supreme Court emphasised that such communication must be meaningful so as to serve the intended purpose. This principle was reiterated in Prabir Purkayastha (supra). In Vihaan Kumar (supra), the Court held that the requirement of communicating the grounds of arrest under Section 50 Cr.P.C. (Section 47 BNSS) must be purposeful, and extends to friends, relatives, or other persons nominated by the arrestee, in terms of Section 50-A Cr.P.C. (Section 48 BNSS). This obligation is in addition to the mandate under Section 50(1) Cr.P.C. (Section 47(1) BNSS). In Kasireddy (supra), the Supreme Court followed Vihaan Kumar (supra) and reiterated that the grounds of arrest must be furnished not only to the arrestee but also to his family members or relatives, so that necessary arrangements may be made to secure his release at the earliest opportunity. This, the Court held, is essential to render the guarantee under Article 22(1) meaningful and effective, failing which the arrest may be rendered illegal. Subsequently, in Mihir Rajesh Shah (supra), the Supreme Court reaffirmed the dictum in Vihaan Kumar (supra), holding that effective implementation of Article 22 requires communication of the grounds of arrest not only to the detainee but also to his relatives, friends, or nominated persons, as envisaged under Section 50-A Cr.P.C. (Section 48 BNSS).[Extracted from Muhammed Ashfaq C. v. Union of India & Connected Cases, 2026:KER:66077]36. According to the passage, the constitutional requirement of furnishing grounds of arrest in writing primarily seeks to ensure:A. The arresting authority completes all procedural formalitiesB. The arrested person meaningfully understands the reasons for arrest and can exercise legal remediesC. The investigating agency discloses its entire evidenceD. The arrested person is automatically entitled to bailAnswer: B37. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which provision corresponds to Section 50 Cr.P.C. concerning communication of grounds of arrest?A. Section 35 BNSSB. Section 47 BNSSC. Section 48 BNSSD. Section 57 BNSSAnswer: B38. Consider the following statements:1. Section 47(1) BNSS corresponds to Section 50(1) Cr.P.C.2. Section 48 BNSS corresponds to Section 50-A Cr.P.C.3. The obligation under Section 48 BNSS replaces the obligation under Section 47(1) BNSS.Which of the statements given above are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3Answer: A39. Under Article 22(2) of the Constitution, an arrested person must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within:A. 12 hours of arrestB. 22 hours of arrest, including journey timeC. 48 hours of arrestD. 24 hours of arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey to the Magistrate's courtAnswer: D40. Which of the following rights is NOT expressly guaranteed under Article 22(1) of the Constitution?A. The right to be informed of the grounds of arrestB. The right to consult a legal practitioner of one's choiceC. The right to be defended by a legal practitioner of one's choiceD. The right to obtain bail immediately upon arrestAnswer: DIX. The Trial Court observed that the Mahavira gang was a notorious gang of dacoits involved in committing dacoities. Since a gun and cartridges were looted during the incident, the Court held that the acts of the accused constituted an offence under Section 396 IPC, rather than Section 302 read with Section 404 IPC. Accordingly, the Trial Court concluded that the prosecution had proved its case against all the accused beyond reasonable doubt and convicted and sentenced them under Section 396 IPC.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Krishna Pal and Others v. State, Criminal Appeal No. 2921 of 1982]41. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which offence is committed when five or more persons jointly commit dacoity and one of them commits murder during its commission?A. Culpable homicideB. Robbery with hurtC. Dacoity with murderD. Murder with dishonest misappropriationAnswer: C42. Which provision of the BNS, 2023, corresponds to Section 404 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, concerning dishonest misappropriation of property possessed by a deceased person?A. Section 314B. Section 315C. Section 316D. Section 317Answer: B43. Which provision of the BNS, 2023, generally corresponds to Section 302 IPC concerning punishment for murder?A. Section 100B. Section 101C. Section 103D. Section 105Answer: C44. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if one member of a group of five or more persons jointly committing dacoity commits murder during its commission, who shall be held liable?A. Every person conjointly committing the dacoityB. Only those who actively participated in the murderC. Only the person who committed the murderD. Only those who shared the stolen propertyAnswer: A45. What is the maximum term of rigorous imprisonment prescribed under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, for being a member of an assembly formed for the purpose of committing dacoity?A. Five yearsB. Seven yearsC. Ten yearsD. Imprisonment for lifeAnswer: BX. The dismissal of the original petition does not bar the petitioner from challenging the validity of the gift deed executed on 08.12.2022 before the executing court. If such a challenge is raised, the executing court must examine the matter in light of Section 53 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, and determine whether the gift was executed with the intention of defeating the rights of the decree-holder. If the court finds that the gift deed is hit by Section 53 and is liable to be set aside, the subsequent sale in favour of the fourth respondent would also be affected, as the second respondent’s title to the property, on which the subsequent transfer is based, would stand invalidated.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Abdul Basith Kurikkalakath v. Shafi Mohammed @ Shafi Mohamed Khalid & Ors. (2026:KER:64246)]46. Which of the following transfers is protected under Section 53(1) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?A. A fraudulent gift made to defeat creditorsB. A transfer made without consideration to avoid execution proceedingsC. A transfer made in good faith and for considerationD. Every transfer made after the institution of a civil suitAnswer: C47. Under Section 53(1) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a suit instituted by a creditor to avoid a fraudulent transfer must be instituted:A. For the benefit of the creditor aloneB. On behalf of, or for the benefit of, all creditorsC. Only with the permission of the executing courtD. Exclusively against the original transferorAnswer: B48. Under Section 53(2) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a transfer of immovable property made without consideration with intent to defraud a subsequent transferee is:A. Voidable at the option of the subsequent transfereeB. Void in all circumstancesC. Valid if registeredD. Voidable only at the option of the transferorAnswer: A49. Consider the following statements regarding Section 53 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:1. Section 53(1) deals with transfers intended to defeat or delay creditors.2. Every transfer without consideration is automatically void under Section 53.3. Section 53(1) protects the rights of a transferee in good faith and for consideration.4. Section 53(2) deals with transfers without consideration intended to defraud subsequent transferees.Which of the above statements are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: B50. Section 53(1) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, expressly provides that its provisions shall not impair:A. The operation of the law relating to insolvencyB. The operation of the Indian Contract Act, 1872C. The doctrine of part performanceD. The provisions relating to testamentary successionAnswer: AXI. The mere fact that the appellant-wife is earning does not justify reducing the father's financial responsibility towards his children by half. Although both parents share the obligation to maintain their children, their respective contributions cannot be determined through a simple mathematical division. The daughters reside with the appellant-wife, who manages their everyday needs, education, care and upbringing while simultaneously fulfilling her professional responsibilities. Her contribution extends beyond financial support, as the time, effort and personal attention devoted to raising the children are equally significant. Such non-monetary contributions cannot be precisely quantified and may, in many circumstances, outweigh financial contributions.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sujata Kumari & Ors. v. Rahul Kumar & Anr., 2026 INSC 896]51. According to the passage, which of the following statements best reflects the principle governing parental maintenance obligations?A. Both parents must contribute equally towards the financial maintenance of their children.B. The father's maintenance obligation automatically decreases when the mother is employed.C. Both parents share responsibility for maintaining their children, but their contributions need not be mathematically equal.D. The parent having custody of the children is solely responsible for their maintenance.Answer: C52. Under Section 144(1) of the BNSS, which authority is empowered to order maintenance?A. District MagistrateB. Judicial Magistrate of the First ClassC. Magistrate of the First ClassD. Sessions Judge exclusivelyAnswer: C53. Under Section 144 of the BNSS, which of the following is NOT a statutory requirement for granting maintenance to a minor child?A. The person liable has sufficient means.B. The person liable neglects or refuses to maintain the child.C. The minor child is unable to maintain itself.D. The mother must be unemployed.Answer: D54. Under Section 144(3) of the BNSS, an application seeking recovery of maintenance arrears through a warrant must be made within:A. Six months from the date of the maintenance order.B. One year from the date on which the amount became due.C. Two years from the date of default.D. Three years from the date of the maintenance order.Answer: B55. Under the Explanation to Section 144(1) of the BNSS, the term "wife" includes:A. A woman who has obtained a divorce and subsequently remarried.B. A woman who has been divorced by, or has obtained a divorce from, her husband and has not remarried.C. Every woman who has lived in a domestic relationship.D. A woman whose marriage has been declared void, in every circumstance.Answer: BXII. Upon successful completion of the aforesaid training, the Trainee Judicial Officers shall undergo a further period of one year of structured Law Clerkship. The first six months shall be spent as a Law Clerk under the supervision of the Principal District/District and Sessions Judges or Members of the Higher Judicial Services, and the remaining six months under the supervision of a sitting Judge of the concerned High Court;The aforesaid one-year period of Law Clerkship shall also be treated as equivalent to one year of practice at the Bar for the purposes of satisfying the three-year requirement;During the period of Law Clerkship, the Trainee Judicial Officer shall be paid same emoluments as admissible during their training in State Judicial Academies, with no further allowance, etc.[Extracted from Bhumika Trust v. Union of India and Others, Writ Petition (Civil) No. 1110 of 2025]56. According to the passage, what is the duration of the structured Law Clerkship prescribed for Trainee Judicial Officers?A. Six monthsB. One yearC. Two yearsD. Three yearsAnswer: B57. During the first six months of the Law Clerkship, Trainee Judicial Officers shall work under the supervision of:A. A sitting Judge of the Supreme CourtB. The Chief Justice of the concerned High CourtC. Principal District/District and Sessions Judges or Members of the Higher Judicial ServicesD. Senior Advocates designated by the High CourtAnswer: C58. Under whose supervision shall Trainee Judicial Officers complete the remaining six months of their Law Clerkship?A. The Registrar General of the High CourtB. A sitting Judge of the concerned High CourtC. The Director of the State Judicial AcademyD. A Principal District and Sessions JudgeAnswer: B59. For the purpose of satisfying the three-year practice requirement, the one-year Law Clerkship shall be treated as:A. Equivalent to six months of practice at the BarB. Equivalent to two years of practice at the BarC. Equivalent to one year of practice at the BarD. An additional qualification without equivalence to Bar practiceAnswer: C60. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the emoluments payable to Trainee Judicial Officers during Law Clerkship?A. They shall receive the salary of a District Judge.B. They shall receive the same emoluments as admissible during training in State Judicial Academies, without further allowances.C. They shall receive additional allowances determined by the concerned High Court.D. They shall not receive any remuneration during Law Clerkship.Answer: BXIII. These days, Writ Courts are frequently called upon to deal with proceedings styled as public interest litigations which, on closer scrutiny, do not advance any genuine public cause. The present matter stands on a different footing. The appellant has demonstrated how a vigilant and bona fide citizen can, through sustained and responsible engagement with public authorities and constitutional courts, draw attention to an issue affecting the community at large. Such constructive civic participation deserves acknowledgment.[Extracted from Madurai Farooq Ahmed v. The Principal Secretary to Government & Ors., 2026 INSC 903]61. What is the primary concern expressed by the Court regarding Public Interest Litigations (PILs)?A. PILs can only be filed by government authorities.B. Some proceedings presented as PILs do not serve any genuine public interest.C. PILs are not maintainable before High Courts.D. Every PIL must involve a violation of fundamental rights.Answer: B62. Which constitutional provision empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose?A. Article 32B. Article 131C. Article 226D. Article 136Answer: C63. Under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, which court has the power to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights?A. District CourtB. High CourtC. Supreme CourtD. Administrative TribunalAnswer: C64. Which of the following writs is issued to command a public authority to perform a public duty that it has unlawfully failed or refused to perform?A. CertiorariB. MandamusC. ProhibitionD. Quo WarrantoAnswer: B65. Which writ is generally issued by a superior court to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from continuing proceedings beyond its jurisdiction?A. Habeas CorpusB. MandamusC. ProhibitionD. Quo WarrantoAnswer: CXIV. The responsibility of any such person for the loss, destruction or deterioration of goods of which he has taken charge shall, subject to the other provisions of the said Act, be that of a bailee under Sections 151, 152 and 161 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (for short, “Contract Act”). Once the Board has taken charge of the goods and issued the prescribed receipt, the master or owner of the vessel is discharged from any liability for loss or damage to such goods thereafter. Therefore, Section 42 of the Major Port Trusts Act fastens the liability in respect of the goods received, either on the Board which has taken charge of the goods as requested by the owner thereof or a person authorised by the Board on the terms and conditions agreed upon with the previous sanction of the Central Government. Any loss caused to the goods is as that of a bailee under sections 151, 152 and 161 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.[Extracted from Union of India & Others v. The Board of Trustees of the Port of Bombay, Civil Appeal No. 4477 of 2010]66. Under which provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, is bailment defined?A. Section 148B. Section 149C. Section 151D. Section 152Answer: A67. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of bailment under Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?A. Transfer of ownership of goodsB. Delivery of goods for a specific purpose, with an obligation to return or otherwise dispose of them according to the bailor's directions when the purpose is accomplishedC. Permanent transfer of possession without any obligationD. Transfer of immovable property for considerationAnswer: B68. Section 151 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, requires a bailee to exercise:A. The highest possible degree of care in every circumstanceB. The same degree of care as a person of ordinary prudence would take of their own goods of similar bulk, quality and value under similar circumstancesC. Only such care as expressly mentioned in the contractD. No care unless the bailment is for considerationAnswer: B69. Which provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, deals with the termination of bailment by the bailee's act inconsistent with the conditions of bailment?A. Section 153B. Section 154C. Section 155D. Section 156Answer: A70. Which of the following correctly distinguishes bailment from pledge under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?A. Every bailment is a pledge.B. A pledge involves bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise.C. Bailment necessarily involves transfer of ownership, whereas pledge does not.D. A pledge can relate only to immovable property.Answer: BXV. At the outset we have to notice that the proceedings under Section 73/74 can be initiated only on the satisfaction of the Assessing Officer. Even if observations/objections are made on audit, the Assessing Officer should enter his satisfaction before a notice is issued. Insofar as a notice under Section 74, the satisfaction should be not only of mismatch of ITC and short payment of tax having occurred, as is alleged in this case, the Officer should be satisfied that either fraud/willful misrepresentation/suppression had led to such mismatch or short payment of tax.[Extracted from M/s Tata Steel Limited v. Union of India & Ors., 2026 INSC 92]71. According to the passage, proceedings under Sections 73 and 74 of the CGST Act can be initiated only when:A. An audit report identifies discrepancies in tax payments.B. The Assessing Officer records satisfaction regarding the grounds for initiating proceedings.C. The taxpayer fails to respond to an audit objection.D. The GST authorities receive a complaint against the taxpayer.Answer: B72. Which of the following statements best reflects the legal position regarding audit objections?A. Audit objections automatically authorise the initiation of proceedings under Section 74.B. Audit findings are binding upon the Assessing Officer.C. The Assessing Officer must independently satisfy himself before issuing a notice, even where audit objections exist.D. Audit objections eliminate the requirement of issuing a show-cause notice.Answer: C73. According to the passage, who must record satisfaction before initiating proceedings under Sections 73 and 74 of the CGST Act, 2017?A. The GST Appellate TribunalB. The Assessing OfficerC. The Comptroller and Auditor General of IndiaD. The Commissioner of Income TaxAnswer: B74. Which of the following best describes the statutory role of an Assessing Officer?A. To examine tax-related records and determine tax liability in accordance with the applicable statute.B. To enact taxation laws.C. To adjudicate constitutional disputes between the Union and States.D. To exercise legislative control over tax rates.Answer: A75. An Assessing Officer passes an adverse assessment order without providing the taxpayer a reasonable opportunity of being heard, where such hearing is legally required. Which principle is primarily violated?A. Audi alteram partemB. Res judicataC. Double jeopardyD. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit reaAnswer: AXVI. The primary grievance, as raised by the Appellants, is that the eligibility conditions mentioned in the tender were arbitrary, irrational, and exclusionary, thereby effectively barring participation in the bidding. It is pertinent to note that a challenge to a tender condition/eligibility criterion, as distinct from a challenge to the evaluation of a bid, or declaring a participatory tenderer as non–responsive, accrues on the very day the condition is published. Nothing further is required to be discovered. Therefore, an entity which finds itself excluded or ineligible owing to a condition that is perceived to be arbitrary or unconstitutional, must at the earliest raise that grievance by approaching the Court.The doctrine of delay and laches here reflects the equitable refusal of the Court to assist a litigant whose conscious inaction has allowed the legal and administrative landscape to change. The Appellants herein did not lack knowledge of the eligibility criteria. They lacked diligence in challenging it.[Extracted from M/s. Utkarsh Enterprises & Ors. v. Union of India & Ors., arising out of SLP (C) No. 16792 of 2026]76. A company becomes aware of an allegedly discriminatory tender eligibility condition on the date of publication but waits until the successful bidder is selected before challenging it. Which principle is most relevant?A. Doctrine of legitimate expectationB. Doctrine of delay and lachesC. Doctrine of promissory estoppelD. Doctrine of proportionalityAnswer: B77. Which constitutional provision is most directly relevant when tender eligibility conditions imposed by the State are challenged as arbitrary or discriminatory?A. Article 19(1)(a)B. Article 21C. Article 14D. Article 32 exclusivelyAnswer: C78. The doctrine of delay and laches is primarily associated with which of the following principles?A. Equity aids the vigilant, not those who sleep on their rights.B. No person shall be a judge in their own cause.C. An act of the Court shall prejudice no one.D. Every contract must be supported by consideration.Answer: A79. According to the passage, when does the cause of action arise for challenging an allegedly arbitrary eligibility condition in a tender?A. When the final contract is awardedB. When the tender condition is publishedC. When the bidder is formally declared non-responsiveD. When the tender evaluation process is completedAnswer: B80. Which of the following best explains the doctrine of delay and laches in the context of judicial review of tender conditions?A. Every delay automatically extinguishes the substantive legal right of a bidder.B. Courts must entertain all challenges involving constitutional violations irrespective of delay.C. Courts may refuse equitable relief where a litigant's conscious inaction has allowed the legal and administrative circumstances to change.D. The doctrine applies exclusively to contractual disputes between private parties.Answer: CXVII. Chandrakant Jha has not preferred petitions for remission either to the State Government or to the constitutional authorities as may be applicable. In that view of the matter, we see no reason to entertain this petition under Article 32. It may be specifically noted that V. Sriharan supra answers the question as raised in the writ petition that life sentence ordinarily means remainder of natural life (ref: Sections 45 & 53 IPC). That apart, the judgment of conviction by the Delhi High Court, SLP against which is dismissed by this Court, categorically directs that he would not be released on remission for the remainder of his life then such a question does not even arise. It has also been stated that the powers under Articles 72/161 shall remain unaffected. Nothing further needs to be said.[Extracted from Ramasrey @ Fakkad v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (2026 INSC 764)]81. According to the passage, what is the ordinary meaning of a sentence of life imprisonment?A. Imprisonment for a fixed period of 14 yearsB. Imprisonment for a maximum period of 20 yearsC. Imprisonment for the remainder of the convict's natural lifeD. Imprisonment until the convict becomes eligible for remissionAnswer: C82. Under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment is vested in:A. The Prime Minister of IndiaB. The Chief Justice of IndiaC. The President of IndiaD. The Governor of a StateAnswer: C83. Article 161 of the Constitution of India empowers which constitutional authority to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment in matters within the State's executive power?A. The Chief MinisterB. The GovernorC. The PresidentD. The Chief Justice of the High CourtAnswer: B84. Which of the following principles was affirmed in Union of India v. V. Sriharan concerning life imprisonment?A. Every life convict must be released after completing 14 yearsB. Life imprisonment automatically expires after 20 yearsC. Life imprisonment ordinarily extends to the remainder of the convict's natural lifeD. Life imprisonment cannot be imposed without the possibility of statutory remissionAnswer: C85. Which of the following statements is correct regarding remission and life imprisonment?A. Remission automatically terminates a life sentence after 14 yearsB. A life convict has an absolute constitutional right to premature releaseC. The Governor's constitutional clemency power is extinguished when a court excludes statutory remissionD. Statutory remission and constitutional clemency are distinct legal mechanismsAnswer: DXVIII. Once it is established that the distinction between relationship in the nature of marriage and marriage, in so far as protection against cruelty is concerned, does not satisfy Article 14, the next aspect is to harmonise the words of the section and its beneficial intent. We have already discussed earlier the approaches of literal interpretation and purposive interpretation. Although the conflict between these two approaches has been recognised as perennial, there is now a shift towards the latter. As put by Lord Millett ‘we are all purposive constructionists now. For beneficial legislations intended to remedy a social evil, the Court’s duty is to discern the intention of the legislature and advance the mischief rule to ensure the statute is not reduced to futility.[Extracted from Dr. Lokesh B.H. & Ors. v. State of Karnataka & Anr. (2026 INSC 784)]86. Which constitutional provision is primarily invoked in the passage to examine the distinction between marriage and a relationship in the nature of marriage?A. Article 19B. Article 21C. Article 14D. Article 25Answer: C87. According to the passage, what is the primary duty of courts when interpreting beneficial legislation intended to remedy a social evil?A. To adopt the narrowest possible interpretation of statutory provisionsB. To strictly follow the grammatical meaning regardless of consequencesC. To disregard the statutory language and create new legal rightsD. To ascertain legislative intent and interpret the statute in a manner that advances its remedial purposeAnswer: D88. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the relationship between reasonable classification and arbitrariness under Article 14?A. A classification satisfying the traditional two-pronged test is necessarily immune from every challenge based on arbitrariness.B. The doctrine of arbitrariness applies exclusively to executive action and not legislation.C. Article 14 prohibits class legislation but permits reasonable classification, while manifest arbitrariness may independently provide grounds for challenging legislation.D. Any differentiation between individuals constitutes arbitrariness irrespective of legislative purpose.Answer: C89. In E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974), the Supreme Court expanded the understanding of equality under Article 14. Which proposition best represents its constitutional significance?A. Equality is confined to identifying similarly situated classes.B. Arbitrariness and equality are antithetical, and arbitrary State action may offend Article 14.C. Article 14 is applicable only where legislation expressly creates discriminatory classifications.D. Administrative discretion is beyond judicial scrutiny unless mala fides are conclusively established.Answer: B90. In Tata Cellular v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court recognised which of the following as major grounds of judicial review of administrative action?A. Illegality, irrationality and procedural improprietyB. Legislative competence, repugnancy and severabilityC. Proportionality, res judicata and estoppelD. Natural justice, double jeopardy and legitimate expectation onlyAnswer: AXIX. The law of torts has developed significantly through landmark judicial decisions that have shaped its fundamental principles and practical application. In Donoghue v. Stevenson (1932), the House of Lords established the Neighbour Principle, which became a cornerstone of the modern law of negligence. The decision recognised that manufacturers owe a duty of care to ultimate consumers who may be harmed by defects in their products, even in the absence of a contractual relationship. Similarly, Rylands v. Fletcher (1868) established the principle of strict liability, under which a person who brings and keeps a dangerous substance on their land for a non-natural use may be held liable if it escapes and causes damage, subject to recognised exceptions. These judgments played a crucial role in expanding the scope of tortious liability by strengthening the principles of duty of care, legal responsibility and compensation for harm.[Extracted from Tort Reform: A Critical Analysis of its Implications on Access to Justice by Palak Yadav, published in the International Journal of Law Management & Humanities, Vol. 8, Issue 3]91. The principle established in Donoghue v. Stevenson (1932) primarily concerns:A. Absolute liability for hazardous industrial activitiesB. Duty of care owed to persons who may reasonably be affected by one's actionsC. Liability arising exclusively from contractual obligationsD. Strict liability for the escape of dangerous substancesAnswer: B92. Under the rule established in Rylands v. Fletcher (1868), which of the following is generally NOT an essential requirement for establishing strict liability?A. Accumulation of a potentially dangerous substance on the defendant's landB. Non-natural use of the landC. Proof of negligence or wrongful intention on the part of the defendantD. Escape of the dangerous substance causing damageAnswer: C93. Which of the following is a recognised defence to liability under the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher?A. The defendant exercised reasonable care in every case.B. The defendant did not intend to cause damage.C. The escape was caused solely by an unforeseeable act of a stranger.D. The defendant was unaware of the dangerous nature of the substance.Answer: C94. Which of the following cases is most closely associated with the principle that a person who voluntarily encounters a known risk may be prevented from recovering damages?A. Donoghue v. StevensonB. Rylands v. FletcherC. Ashby v. WhiteD. Smith v. Baker & SonsAnswer: D95. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes Donoghue v. Stevenson from Rylands v. Fletcher?A. Both cases establish liability without requiring any examination of the defendant's conduct.B. Donoghue v. Stevenson concerns negligence and duty of care, whereas Rylands v. Fletcher concerns liability for the escape of dangerous substances under specified conditions.C. Both cases require a direct contractual relationship between the parties.D. Rylands v. Fletcher establishes that manufacturers owe a duty of care to ultimate consumers.Answer: BXX. In Mohammad Wajid v. State of U.P., this Court held that the averments of the information are not the sole material, and that in frivolous or vexatious proceedings the Court owes a duty to look into the attending circumstances emerging from the record. Those circumstances here are these. The agreement was terminated on 08.07.2024. Within a fortnight, on 23.07.2024, the respondent No. 2 caused a legal notice to be issued, and on 29.07.2024 he addressed a further communication to the Managing Director. Neither breathes a word of an advance of Rs. 73,00,000/-, or of Rs. 41,50,833/- wrongfully retained; the grievance in both is that goods were supplied to him at a price higher than that charged to another, and in the second he asserts that he continues to hold the Company's goods worth about Rs. 6,00,000/-. The Company replied on 11.09.2024, rejecting the complaint and demanding Rs. 5,79,239/-. The information report followed more than two months later, and the case of an unreturned advance was made in it for the first time. That is a circumstance which this Court is persuaded to weigh in.[Extracted from Parag Kishore Satoskar and Others v. State of Jharkhand and Another, arising out of SLP (Crl.) No. 3933 of 2025]96. Under Section 2(20) of the Companies Act, 2013, the term "company" means:A. Any association of persons carrying on business for profitB. A company incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 or under any previous company lawC. Any registered partnership firm having more than twenty partnersD. Any body corporate established under a foreign lawAnswer: B97. Under Section 179(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the Board of Directors is entitled to exercise:A. All powers of the company without any statutory restrictionsB. All powers and acts that the company is authorised to exercise and do, subject to the Act, memorandum, articles and applicable regulationsC. Only those powers expressly delegated by the shareholders through a special resolutionD. Powers relating exclusively to financial transactionsAnswer: B98. A Managing Director enters into a commercial agreement on behalf of a company. Subsequently, a dispute arises regarding the performance of contractual obligations. Which principle most accurately reflects the doctrine of separate legal personality?A. The Managing Director is automatically personally liable for every contractual obligation of the companyB. The shareholders and directors are jointly liable for all commercial debtsC. The company possesses a legal personality distinct from its members and directors, although personal liability may arise on independent legal groundsD. The company cannot enter into a contract without the personal guarantee of its directorsAnswer: C99. A director incorporates a company solely to evade an existing contractual obligation and uses it as a façade to conceal his personal dealings. Which legal principle is most directly applicable?A. Doctrine of Constructive NoticeB. Doctrine of Indoor ManagementC. Doctrine of Lifting the Corporate VeilD. Doctrine of Majority RuleAnswer: C100. Which of the following landmark cases established the principle that a company has a separate legal personality distinct from its shareholders?A. Lee v. Lee's Air Farming Ltd.B. Salomon v. A. Salomon & Co. Ltd.C. Gilford Motor Co. Ltd. v. HorneD. Jones v. LipmanAnswer: BXXI. This line of cross-examination pursued by Advocate Mohammed Iqbal was wholly irrelevant, improper and would appear to be a technique to embarrass, humiliate and morally judge the prosecutrix based on her clothing. It ought to have been disallowed at the very outset by the learned Trial Judge. A woman’s choice of attire neither diminishes her dignity nor serves as justification or condonation for unlawful conduct directed against her. Questions founded upon regressive notions of how a woman ought to dress have no legitimate place in a court of law and cannot be permitted to become a device for character assassination or for blaming the prosecutrix. I am not unmindful of the considerable pressures under which officers of the district judiciary discharge their duties. Nevertheless, the presiding judge is not a passive spectator to the proceedings. Whenever cross-examination transgresses the bounds of relevance and propriety, or is employed as a means to intimidate, insult, harass or shame a witness, the Court must intervene promptly and decisively. The process of cross-examination cannot be reduced to an instrument of humiliation, nor can the dignity of a witness be sacrificed under the guise of testing her credibility.[Extracted from State (NCT of Delhi) v. Sajid Ali, CRL.A. 1065/2016]101. According to the passage, what is the primary responsibility of a Trial Judge when cross-examination becomes humiliating or irrelevant?A. To intervene promptly and prevent improper questioningB. To allow unrestricted questioning in the interest of a fair trialC. To postpone consideration of objectionable questions until final argumentsD. To permit such questions if they are asked by defence counselAnswer: A102. Consider the following statements regarding cross-examination:1. Leading questions are generally permissible during cross-examination.2. Cross-examination is necessarily restricted to matters discussed during examination-in-chief.3. A witness may be questioned to test their veracity, subject to statutory safeguards.4. The Court has no authority to prevent insulting questions during cross-examination.Which of the statements given above are correct?A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 4 onlyD. 1, 3 and 4 onlyAnswer: A103. Which of the following best explains the distinction between cross-examination and re-examination?A. Cross-examination is conducted by the adverse party, whereas re-examination is conducted by the party calling the witness to explain matters referred to in cross-examination.B. Cross-examination is conducted by the party calling the witness, whereas re-examination is conducted by the opposing party.C. Both are conducted exclusively by the adverse party.D. Re-examination permits unrestricted introduction of new matters without judicial permission.Answer: A104. Under Section 155 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the Court is required to forbid a question when:A. The question is intended to insult or annoy a witness or is needlessly offensive in form.B. The question is likely to weaken the prosecution's case.C. The question is asked by defence counsel during cross-examination.D. The question concerns the credibility of a witness.Answer: A105. Which of the following best describes the nature of the power conferred upon the Court under Section 157(1) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?A. MandatoryB. DiscretionaryC. MinisterialD. AdministrativeAnswer: BXXII. The four assailants who arrived together at the place of occurrence in a fourwheeler were carrying a can containing petrol. The accused No.1-Shivjit initially threatened the deceased-complainant and thereafter, he brought the can of petrol from the vehicle, poured the same over the deceased-complainant and threw a burning matchstick on his person thereby setting him ablaze. These facts are narrated in detail in the statement of the deceased-complainant recorded by the police officer based whereupon the FIR came to be registered.[Extracted from Yash Mahesh Gaikwad v. State of Maharashtra & Anr., arising out of SLP (Crl.) No. 6992 of 2026]106. What is the full form of FIR?A. First Investigation ReportB. First Information ReportC. Formal Investigation RecordD. First Inquiry ReportAnswer: B107. An FIR is ordinarily registered in relation to which category of offences?A. Non-cognizable offencesB. Civil offencesC. Cognizable offencesD. Compoundable offences onlyAnswer: C108. Is the police required to provide a copy of the FIR to the informant under the BNSS, 2023?A. Yes, free of costB. Yes, upon payment of prescribed feesC. Only with the permission of the MagistrateD. No, the informant has no such rightAnswer: A109. Under Section 173 of the BNSS, 2023, information relating to a cognizable offence may be given:A. Only in writingB. Only orallyC. Orally or through electronic communicationD. Only through a legal practitionerAnswer: C110. Under Section 173(1)(ii) of the BNSS, 2023, information relating to a cognizable offence given through electronic communication shall be taken on record upon being signed by the informant within:A. 24 hoursB. 48 hoursC. Three daysD. Seven daysAnswer: CXXIII. In regard to Abhijit Rajan (supra), it may be observed that in that case the persons accused of insider trading had sold of the shares while in possession of UPSI apparently for the purposes of funding the Corporate Debt Restructuring Package. It was observed in the facts of that case that one of the companies involved stood to gain “hugely” from the cancellation of the shareholders' agreements but had still proceeded with the selling of the shares since if the restructuring had not gone through, the parent company Gammon Infrastructure Projects Limited, Gammon India Limited could have gone into bankruptcy. In other circumstances, it was held that no ordinary man of prudence would expect an increase of value and would sell shares with the intent to commit insider trading before the relevant information became public. From a perusal of the judgment, it is clear that the transactions subject matter of the dispute took place in the year 2013 and accordingly were governed by the predecessor regulations i.e., Securities and Exchange Board of India (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992.[Extracted from Securities and Exchange Board of India v. Rajeev Vasant Sheth & Ors., Civil Appeal No. 4905 of 2022]111. Which of the following regulations governed the securities transactions undertaken in 2013, as discussed in the passage?A. SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015B. SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992C. SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015D. SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011Answer: B112. In Abhijit Rajan (supra), what was the primary purpose behind the sale of shares while the accused were in possession of Unpublished Price Sensitive Information (UPSI)?A. To manipulate the market price of the company's sharesB. To fund the Corporate Debt Restructuring PackageC. To avoid payment of capital gains taxD. To acquire a controlling interest in another companyAnswer: B113. Consider the following statements concerning Abhijit Rajan (supra):1. The accused sold shares while possessing UPSI.2. The sale was connected with funding a corporate debt restructuring arrangement.3. The relevant transactions occurred after the enforcement of the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015.4. The possibility of bankruptcy was a relevant circumstance in examining the transactions.Which of the statements given above are correct?A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2, 3 and 4Answer: C114. Which regulatory authority is primarily responsible for regulating insider trading in India?A. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)B. Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)C. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)D. Competition Commission of India (CCI)Answer: C115. Insider trading in India is primarily regulated under which legislation and regulations?A. SEBI Act, 1992 and SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015B. Indian Contract Act, 1872C. Competition Act, 2002D. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016Answer: AXXIV. The Paris Agreement works on a five- year cycle of increasingly ambitious climate action carried out by countries. Every five years, each country is expected to submit an updated national climate action plan - known as Nationally Determined Contribution, or NDC.In their NDCs, countries communicate actions they will take to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions in order to reach the goals of the Paris Agreement. Countries also communicate in the NDCs actions they will take to build resilience to adapt to the impacts of rising temperatures.In 2023, the first “global stocktake” of the world’s efforts under the Paris Agreement concluded at COP28 with a decision on how to accelerate action across all areas – mitigation, adaptation, and finance – by 2030, including a call on governments to speed up the transition away from fossil fuels to renewable energy such as wind and solar power in their next round of climate commitments.To better frame the efforts towards the long-term goal, the Paris Agreement invites countries to formulate and submit long-term strategies. Unlike NDCs, they are not mandatory.116. Under the Paris Agreement, countries are expected to submit updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) at what interval?A. Every three yearsB. Every five yearsC. Every seven yearsD. Every ten yearsAnswer: B117. Which of the following areas were expressly addressed in the decision concluding the first Global Stocktake?A. Mitigation, adaptation and financeB. International trade, migration and biodiversityC. Disarmament, development and public healthD. Ocean governance, forestry and international taxationAnswer: A118. The call at COP28 to transition away from fossil fuels towards renewable energy was included in the outcome of which process?A. The Kyoto Protocol compliance mechanismB. The Convention on Biological Diversity review mechanismC. The Montreal Protocol adjustment procedureD. The first Global Stocktake under the Paris AgreementAnswer: D119. Which Article of the Paris Agreement primarily governs Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)?A. Article 2B. Article 4C. Article 6D. Article 14Answer: B120. The Paris Agreement was adopted in which year?A. 1992B. 1997C. 2015D. 2020Answer: CPractice the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – September 2026 and stay tuned to Legal Bites for monthly CLAT PG mock tests.Important LinkLaw Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary, and Entrance Exams