As UPSC CSE Prelims 2027 is still ahead, building a strong foundation alongside regular current affairs preparation is essential. UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs–based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and review the detailed answers with explanations to strengthen conceptual clarity and exam readiness.As we mark the 3rd anniversary of the UPSC Essentials magazine, we thank our readers for being part of this journey. Your trust, feedback and continued support have shaped the magazine and encouraged us to keep improving with every edition. Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for September 2026. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or write to us at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.com.QUESTION 1With reference to the energy storage systems, consider the following statements:1. Energy storage systems convert electricity from renewable sources directly into electricity that can be stored for later use.2. India has projected a target of 208 GWh of Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) by 2030.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?The question is relevant to India’s expanding energy-storage infrastructure and renewable-energy integration. It is relevant for Prelims due to the growing role of energy storage in India’s power sector and renewable-energy targets.Explanation— The Centre approved the third phase of the Green Energy Corridor (GEC), with an outlay of Rs 1.86 lakh crore, aimed at facilitating the evacuation of up to 135 gigawatts (GW) of renewable energy (RE). Evacuation refers to the process of transferring electricity generated from renewable sources to the places where consumers are located.Story continues below this ad— The GEC is a flagship Indian government programme aimed at building dedicated transmission infrastructure to integrate large-scale RE, such as solar and wind power, into the national power grid.— For the first time, the GEC includes a dedicated battery energy storage component, with provisions for deploying 50 gigawatt-hours (GWh) of Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS).— Energy storage refers to systems that can store excess renewable electricity during periods of high generation and discharge it when demand rises but power generation remains low. At its core, energy storage systems convert electricity from renewable sources, when it is available, into forms that can be stored. Later, it converts these back into electricity when need arises.— An energy storage system does not store electricity directly as electricity. It converts/captures the energy into another form—such as chemical, mechanical or thermal energy—and later releases it for use. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.Story continues below this ad— According to pib.gov.in, “As per the National Electricity Plan (2023) published by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA), a requirement of 208 GWh of Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) has been projected by 2030 to enable seamless integration of the increasing share of renewable energy in the grid.” Hence, statement 2 is correct.Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.QUESTION 2With reference to the Exchangeable Pitch System in Cricket, consider the following statements:1. It is commonly used at Lord’s Cricket Ground in England.2. It is a system in which a cricket pitch can be prepared separately and exchanged or installed at a stadium as required.Story continues below this ad3. For the 2027 Men’s ODI World Cup, the ICC has strictly banned the use of the Exchangeable Pitch System.Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?(a) All three statements are correct.(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.(c) There is only one correct statement.(d) There is no correct statement.Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?The Exchangeable Pitch System is a recent innovation in cricket infrastructure linked to the 2027 Men’s ODI World Cup. It combines current affairs with concepts related to sports infrastructure and stadium management. The topic tests awareness of emerging technologies and innovations in sports.Explanation— With an eye on keeping cricket pitches fresh for the 2027 Men’s ODI World Cup, co-hosted by South Africa, Zimbabwe and Namibia, pitch curators in the Rainbow Nation have come up with a unique Exchangeable Pitch System (EPS). Of the eight South African venues scheduled to host World Cup matches, five are preparing to install the system, allowing ground staff to exchange pitches to prevent deterioration from excess usage. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.Story continues below this ad— For starters, this sounds like a drop-in pitch, commonly used at Australia’s Melbourne Cricket Ground, in Adelaide, and in the US during the 2024 T20 World Cup. As the name suggests, a drop-in pitch is prepared externally and then dropped into a stadium before a cricket match is played. This is because many stadiums are used for playing multiple sports, such as rugby and football, and hosting other events that require very different ground conditions. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct. How the new World Cup pitches will be prepared.— Large trailers enter the ground and use cranes to drop the pitches into spots that are dug up specifically to match the measurements of the pitch that is to be fitted within. After the matches have been played, they are retrieved and the space is filled in to restore the ground.Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.To read more: How South Africa’s new exchangeable pitches could shape the 2027 Cricket World CupQUESTION 3With reference to the International Tourism Mart (ITM), consider the following statements:Story continues below this ad1. It is a flagship annual event of the Ministry of Culture.2. The annual event is held by rotation in one of the North-Eastern states.3. The first edition of ITM was held in 2025 in Sikkim.How many of the statements given above are correct?(a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) NoneWhy this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?The International Tourism Mart is relevant to tourism promotion and regional development in Northeast India. It also links current affairs with the geographical and cultural significance of the North-Eastern states.ExplanationStory continues below this ad— The government is set to hold a mega international event in Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh towards the end of this month. The International Tourism Mart, being organised by the Ministry of Tourism from October 27 to November 1, will bring together delegates from around 20 countries. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.— Delegates from China have also been invited to the annual event which is held, by rotation, in one of the North-Eastern states. The 2025 edition of the event was held in Sikkim, and was attended by government representatives and industry stakeholders from over19 countries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.— Beijing refers to Arunachal Pradesh as Zangnan or South Tibet and claims that it belongs to China. New Delhi strongly rejects China’s territorial claim, reiterating that Arunachal Pradesh is an “inalienable and integral part of India”.— While a lot of focus is on building travel and tourism ties between the region and its neighbours, particularly the ASEAN and SAARC countries, representatives and stakeholders from other parts of the world also attend the event. Delegates from Australia, New Zealand, Spain, Germany, Italy, France, Thailand and Israel were among those at the 2025 edition in Sikkim.Story continues below this ad— The first edition of the International Tourism Mart (ITM) was held in Guwahati, Assam, in January 2013. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.QUESTION 4Recently, at which of the following coasts were pottery fragments found in 10-12 metres of water, believed to have originated in West Asia, including pieces of a torpedo jar, a distinctive transport vessel associated with long-distance maritime trade in the Indian Ocean?(a) Kottapatnam, Andhra Pradesh(b) Vizhinjam, Kerala(c) Poompuhar, Tamil Nadu(d) Lothal, GujaratWhy this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?It tests knowledge of ancient ports, archaeology and India’s links with West Asia and the Indian Ocean. It is relevant to Prelims through the intersection of current affairs with ancient Indian history and culture.Explanation— About 2 kilometres from the present-day Tamil Nadu coast, archaeologists searching the seabed off Poompuhar have recovered something that travelled a much greater distance. Found in 10-12 metres of water, the fragments of pottery were believed to have originated in West Asia, including pieces of a torpedo jar, a distinctive transport vessel associated with long-distance maritime trade in the Indian Ocean.— Archaeologists recovered the fragments during the third phase of underwater exploration, about 1.8 to 2.2 km from the present shoreline. For archaeologists trying to reconstruct ancient Kaveripoompattinam — the celebrated Chola port known today as Poompuhar, parts of which now lie beneath the Bay of Bengal — the find provides a new material clue to a world that Tamil literature described nearly two millennia ago.Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.QUESTION 5With reference to the Indian Space Research Organisation and its facilities, consider the following pairs:1. Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre – Odisha2. Space Applications Centre – Gujarat3. Satish Dhawan Space Centre – Andhra Pradesh4. ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network – KeralamHow many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?(a) Only one pair(b) Only two pairs(c) Only three pairs(d) All four pairsWhy this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?The question tests awareness of ISRO’s major facilities and their geographical locations. The topic is relevant to Prelims because space technology and India’s space programme remain important areas of science and technology.Explanation— The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will get a boost to its radar and satellite tracking capabilities with a new facility coming up in Chandrapur near Guwahati.Other Important Facilities— Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) – Thiruvananthapuram (Keralam) and Bengaluru (Karnataka)— Space Applications Centre (SAC) – Ahmedabad (Gujarat)— Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR – Nellore (Andhra Pradesh)— ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC) – Bengaluru (Karnataka)Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.(Other Source: http://www.isro.gov.in)QUESTION 6The concept of ‘Post-facto environmental clearances’ refers to:(a) Granting environmental clearance to a project after it has already commenced operations or construction without prior clearance.(b) Granting environmental clearance to a project before the commencement of construction but after the completion of its environmental impact assessment.(c) Granting environmental clearance to a project after the completion of its construction but before it begins commercial operations.(d) Granting environmental clearance to a project after its environmental impact has been assessed periodically during its operation.Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?The topic has implications for Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) and regulatory compliance. It is relevant to UPSC Prelims due to the intersection of current environmental debates with statutory and regulatory frameworks.Explanation— The Union Environment Ministry has directed its central and state-level expert bodies to resume processing ‘post-facto’ environmental clearance (EC) proposals, two months after the Supreme Court permitted it to take such pending, rejected or returned proposals to their logical conclusion in accordance with law.— Post-facto environmental clearances refer to dispensation provided by the Centre for those projects which had begun work, expanded, or modernised them without seeking prior approval as mandated by law.Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.QUESTION 7Consider the following statements:1. ERONET is a centralised form processing system for handling voter registration, migration and deletion.2. ECINET is a platform that brings together electoral applications and services that were previously spread across multiple platforms.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?The question is relevant to electoral governance and the digitisation of election-related services in India. The topic links current affairs with electoral rolls, voter registration and election administration. It is relevant for Prelims due to the evolving use of technology in electoral processes and governance.Explanation— The Election Commission has removed an additional SIR declaration from Form 6 on its ECINET portal in states where the revision exercise has concluded, days after questions were raised over whether the online form had been altered beyond what the law permits. The change is the latest in a series of developments that have put the Commission’s electoral-roll software under scrutiny.— The proposed changes relate to how the state’s Electoral Registration Officers (EROs) can exercise their statutory powers through the platform, as the special intensive revision (SIR) process continues in the state.— The Election Commission describes ERONET as a “centralized form processing system” for handling voter registration, migration and deletion. It replaced 36 separate systems and databases used by states to manage their electoral rolls. Hence, statement 1 is correct.— ERONET is intended to aid the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) in the capacity of a “decision support system”, in preparing and revising the electoral roll of an assembly constituency.— In contrast, ECINET is a newer, broader platform that brings together electoral applications and services that were previously spread across multiple platforms. Officially launched in January 2026, it rationalised over 40 applications and websites used by voters, candidates, political parties and election officials. Hence, statement 2 is correct.— Major services for voters range from registration and searching electoral rolls to tracking applications, downloading electronic voter identity cards and finding information about polling stations and candidates.Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.QUESTION 8With reference to the Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE)-III framework, consider the following statements:1. CAFE-III does not require manufacturers to balance their books completely every year.2. 2. Manufacturers exceeding their CAFE targets earn credits, while those falling short accumulate debits; credits can be carried forward and traded within the compliance block.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?CAFE-III is a recent policy framework aimed at improving fuel efficiency and reducing emissions from vehicles. The topic is relevant to Prelims due to its intersection of automobile technology, climate policy and government regulation.Explanation— India’s new fuel-efficiency rules for passenger vehicles will force carmakers to increasingly manage the efficiency of their entire vehicle portfolio, rather than individual models, from April 2027. The final Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE)-III framework, notified on September 29, has introduced a new formula to relax norms for smaller cars, while doing away with an earlier proposed special concession for the category, and gives electric vehicles the biggest compliance benefit among the different powertrains.— The CAFE norms will apply from April 1, 2027, to March 31, 2032. They cover M1 category passenger vehicles manufactured or imported for sale in India. At the heart of the system is a fleet-wide calculation: a manufacturer’s permitted fuel consumption is determined by the weighted average unladen weight of the vehicles it sells.— This means a carmaker selling a large number of lighter vehicles and one selling predominantly SUVs do not face exactly the same target. The heavier the average fleet, the higher the permitted fuel consumption.— CAFE-III does not require manufacturers to balance their books completely every year. Hence, statement 1 is correct.— A manufacturer whose fleet performs better than its target earns credits, while one performing worse accumulates debits. These are recorded in a manufacturer-level passbook. Credits can be carried forward within a compliance block and traded between manufacturers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.QUESTION 9Recently, Apple launched its payment service, Apple Pay, in India. Which of the following banks issue Visa and Mastercard credit cards that are supported on Apple Pay in India?1. HDFC Bank2. State Bank of India3. ICICI Bank4. Axis BankSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 only(d) 4 onlyWhy this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?The question is relevant to digital payments and the evolving fintech ecosystem in India. It is relevant for Prelims due to the growing role of technology companies and banks in India’s digital payments landscape.Explanation— Apple debuted its payment service, Apple Pay, in India on September 30, 12 years after it was first launched in the US, with Axis Bank-issued Visa and Mastercard credit cards available on the platform initially.— The service allows users to make contactless card payments using Apple devices, as well as payments in apps and on the web. Its India entry comes into a market where contactless card payments are already available through rivals such as Samsung and Google, alongside the far more widely used UPI ecosystem.— Apple Pay is a digital wallet and payments service that allows users to add eligible debit or credit cards to Apple devices and use them to make contactless payments in stores, as well as payments in apps and on the web.Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.QUESTION 10Which of the following provides the principal framework for regulating the prices of medicines in India?(a) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA)(b) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940(c) Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013(d) Essential Commodities Act, 1955Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?The question tests awareness of India’s pharmaceutical price-control framework and the regulation of medicine prices. It is relevant to Prelims due to the importance of affordable medicines and pharmaceutical-sector governance.Explanation— The Supreme Court described the markup between the price at which medicines reach retailers and the price printed on the pack as “carnage”, calling the difference akin to “broad daylight dacoity with patients”.— Hearing petitions on medicine pricing, a bench of Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta asked the Centre why the 16% retailer margin under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013, should not apply to all essential medicines.— The remarks came in the context of an essential cancer drug that is being supplied to retailers for Rs 2,700 but carries an MRP of nearly Rs 27,000. Questioning the difference, the bench said, “The MRP is 10 times the rate at which it is provided to the retailers. If this is not extortion, then what is it?… That’s absolute rampage, carnage, broad daylight dacoity… It is very surprising that the authorities who are supposed to take a decision on this are absolutely silent. We don’t need to spell out the reason for that,” the bench said.— The Essential Commodities Act, 1955, gives the Centre power over essential goods, including medicines. Section 3(1) allows it to regulate production, supply, and distribution “for maintaining or increasing supplies of any essential commodity or for securing their equitable distribution and availability at fair price”. Section 3(2)(c) allows for issuing orders controlling commodity prices.— The DPCO is such an order. It is the primary framework governing medicine prices in India. It authorises the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA), set up in 1997 under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, to fix and revise ceiling prices of scheduled formulations, set retail prices for new drugs, monitor overcharging and implement the DPCO.— The DPCO divides medicines into two broad categories — scheduled and non-scheduled formulations. A formulation refers to a medicine in a particular strength and dosage form.Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.Previous Weekly QuizUPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (September 20 – September 26)UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (September 13 – September 19)UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (September 06 – September 12)UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 30 – September 05)UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 23 – August 29)UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 16 – August 22)UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 09 – August 15)Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.