UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs-based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for the aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find answers to the MCQs with explanations. Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for November 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@indianexpress.comQUESTION 1With reference to the G20 summit 2025, consider the following statements:1. The theme of this year’s G20 has been ‘Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet’.2. The African Union had become a member of the G20 during India’s presidency of the Summit held in New Delhi in 2021.3. This year’s summit will be the fourth consecutive G20 Summit being held in the Global South.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 2 and 3 onlyExplanation— Prime Minister Narendra Modi embarked on a three-day visit to South Africa to attend the 20th G20 Leaders’ Summit in Johannesburg, on the invitation of President Cyril Ramaphosa.Story continues below this ad— The African Union had become a member of the G20 during India’s presidency of the Summit held in New Delhi in 2023. This will be the fourth consecutive G20 Summit being held in the Global South. Hence, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.— The Summit will be an opportunity to discuss key global issues. The theme of this year’s G20 has been ‘Solidarity, Equality and Sustainability’, which South Africa has carried forward from the previous Summits held in New Delhi, India, and Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.QUESTION 2Curacao, an island nation, became the smallest ever nation to qualify for the 2026 FIFA World Cup. The island is located in:(a) Gulf of Mexico(b) Tyrrhenian Sea(c) North Sea(d) Southern Caribbean SeaExplanation— Curacao – the island whose entire population can fit into the Narendra Modi Stadium and Eden Gardens and still leave some 20,000 seats vacant – became the smallest ever nation to qualify for the 2026 FIFA World Cup.Story continues below this ad— Curaçao is an autonomous republic within the Kingdom of the Netherlands that, along with Aruba and Bonaire, form the “ABC” islands in the southern Caribbean Sea.Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.QUESTION 3Consider the following statements:1. It is a 4.5-generation fighter aircraft designed and built by India’s HAL.2. The fighter jet is capable of handling offensive air support, close combat and ground attack missions while also capable of performing ground and maritime operations.3. It has a single-seat fighter variant for the Air Force and the Navy, besides a twin-seat trainer version for each service.The above mentioned statements refer to:(a) Sukhoi(b) Tejas(c) Surya(d) RafaleExplanationStory continues below this ad— An Indian Air Force Tejas fighter jet crashed during the Dubai Air Show. The fighter jet was taking part in an aerial display event when it entered a steep decline, killing its pilot.About Tejas— Tejas is a 4.5-generation fighter aircraft designed and built by India’s HAL.— The fighter jet is capable of handling offensive air support, close combat and ground attack missions while also capable of performing ground and maritime operations. This makes it one of India’s most adaptable indigenous platforms.— It has a single-seat fighter variant for the Air Force and the Navy, besides a twin-seat trainer version for each service.Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.Story continues below this adQUESTION 4Which of the following central paramilitary forces has been designated as the new safety regulator for about 250 facilities across all minor and major Indian seaports along the country’s maritime borders?(a) Central Industrial Security Force(b) Border Security Force(c) Central Reserve Police Force(d) Sashastra Seema BalExplanation— The Centre has designated the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) as the new safety regulator for about 250 facilities across all minor and major Indian seaports along the country’s maritime borders.— CISF Deputy Inspector General (DIG) Ajay Dahiya said the categorisation of the central paramilitary force (under the Union Home Ministry) was done by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways through an order issued on November 18.— The CISF will handle core security functions, such as counter-terrorism and anti-sabotage operations, at all EXIM (export-import) ports, while non-core duties like traffic management, gate control, and other ancillary tasks will be carried out by private security agencies or state police forces.Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.Story continues below this adQUESTION 5Consider the following statements about the Asiatic black bear:1. They inhabit forests at heights ranging from 1,200 metres to 3,300 metres.2. The Asiatic black bear is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.3. The movements of the bears are influenced by the changes in quality, quantity and distribution of food.How many of the statements given above are correct?(a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) NoneExplanationStory continues below this ad— Following a spate of attacks by Asiatic black bears in Uttarakhand, the forest department has released a slew of directions, including shooting to kill as a last resort.About the Asiatic black bear— The Asiatic black bear, found in Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal, Uttarakhand, and northeastern states, inhabits forests at heights ranging from 1,200 metres to 3,300 metres. According to experts, the movements of the bears are influenced by the changes in quality, quantity and distribution of food, as they need to store excess calories to support hibernation. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct. (file image)— The Asiatic black bear (Ursus thibetanus) is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Hence, statement 2 is correct.— In Uttarakhand, Asiatic black bears have been found in Nanda Devi National Park and Biosphere Reserve, Kedarnath Wildlife Sanctuary, Valley of Flowers National Park, Govind Wildlife Sanctuary, and Askot.Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.Story continues below this adQUESTION 6The Sangai Festival, which takes its name from the Sangai – the rare brow-antlered deer, is celebrated in:(a) Nagaland(b) Mizoram(c) Tripura(d) ManipurExplanation— Manipur Governor Ajay Kumar Bhalla inaugurated the Sangai festival, the annual tourism festival of the state amid protests by the Coordinating Committee on Manipur Integrity (COCOMI), Internally Displaced Persons (IDPs) and civil bodies.— The Sangai Festival is a great celebration of Manipur’s diverse traditions and culture. This yearly event, held from the 21st to the 30th of November, is named after the Sangai, a rare brow-antlered deer found only in Manipur. Since its inception in 2010, the Sangai Festival has grown to be a spectacular platform for Manipur to showcase its unique heritage to the world.— It is a ten-day festival that immerses visitors in the region’s art, music, handicrafts, indigenous sports, gastronomy, and outdoor activities.Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.(Other Source: http://www.incredibleindia.gov.in)QUESTION 7The Indian Space Research Organisation has developed CE-20 powers the upper stage of the LVM3. The CE-20 refers to:(a) A cryogenic rocket engine(b) A solid-fuel booster stage used in PSLV missions(c) An electric propulsion system for low-Earth orbit satellites(d) A reusable engine designed for the RLV technology demonstratorExplanation— The Indian Space Research Organisation (Isro) successfully performed the boot-strap mode start test on a cryogenic engine, CE-20, without any auxiliary start-up system.— The intermediary step to the CE-20 cryogenic engine of the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM) will be crucial for India’s Gaganyaan mission and the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS), which requires multi-orbital and multi-restart of the engines. This engine had previously qualified for the Gaganyaan missions, and the vehicle had qualified for operating at thrust levels between 19 and 22 tonnes in flight with a single start.— Isro-developed CE-20 powers the upper stage of the LVM3, with a lift-off capacity of 4,000 tonnes. This is a three-stage launch vehicle: two solid strap-on motors carrying up to 204 tonnes of solid propellant; one liquid core stage with twin engines carrying 115 tonnes of liquid propellant, and lastly, the high-thrust cryogenic upper stage, carrying 28 tonnes of propellant.Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.QUESTION 8Which of the following countries are members of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC)?1. India2. Maldives3. Bangladesh4. Myanmar5. Seychelles6. FijiSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5(c) 2, 3, 4 and 6(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5Explanation— National Security Advisor (NSA) Ajit Doval discussed with his counterparts from the Maldives, Mauritius, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Seychelles and Malaysia at the 7th NSA-level meeting of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC). (ANI Photo/Rahul Singh)— During the meet, the NSAs discussed ways of enhancing cooperation under identified pillars, maritime safety and security; countering terrorism and radicalisation; combating trafficking and transnational organised crime; cyber security and protection of critical infrastructure and technology; and humanitarian assistance and disaster relief, including through training and capacity building.— The CSC Members welcomed the decision of the Republic of Seychelles to accede to the CSC as a full member.— Myanmar and Fiji are not the members of the CSC.Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.QUESTION 9With reference to ‘Article 200 of the Constitution of India’, consider the following statements:1. It outlines the process for a Governor to give assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature.2. The Supreme Court ruled that there is no option to “withhold assent simpliciter” — the Governor cannot simply refuse to sign a Bill and keep it pending; if they withhold assent, they must return the Bill to the House.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Explanation— In a significant verdict settling the law about the legislative interaction between Governors and state governments, a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court delivered its opinion on the Presidential Reference regarding the assent to Bills by the Governor.— Article 200 of the Constitution outlines the process for a Governor to give assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature. Hence, statement 1 is correct.— The Court held that the Governor has three specific options: to grant assent, to reserve the Bill for the President’s consideration or to withhold assent and return the Bill to the legislature with comments for reconsideration.— Crucially, the Court ruled that there is no option to “withhold assent simpliciter” — the Governor cannot simply refuse to sign a Bill and keep it pending; if they withhold assent, they must return the Bill to the House. Hence, statement 2 is correct.Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.QUESTION 10With reference to the interstellar objects, consider the following statements:1. These are celestial bodies that originate outside the solar system.2. These objects are gravitationally bound to a star.3. The trajectory of interstellar objects moves in an open-ended hyperbolic orbit.How many of the statements given above are correct?(a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) NoneExplanation— The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) released new images of Comet 3I/Atlas, an interstellar object that astronomers have determined is billions of years old.— The new images come from a wide range of NASA missions, including planetary science missions such as the Perseverance Mars rover and the Mars Atmosphere and Volatile Evolution (MAVEN) orbiter, the asteroid missions Psyche and Lucy and the sun-studying spacecraft Polarimeter to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere (PUNCH).What are Interstellar objects?— Interstellar objects are celestial bodies that originate outside the solar system, and travel through it. Hence, statement 1 is correct.— These objects are not gravitationally bound to a star. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.— They can come from other solar systems and be thrown into interstellar space — the area between the stars — due to collisions or be slingshotted by a planet’s or star’s gravity.— The trajectory of interstellar objects, however, is quite different. They basically move in an open-ended hyperbolic orbit, where there is a perihelion point but no aphelion. Hence, statement 3 is correct.Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.QUESTION 11The Government of India recently implemented the four Labour Codes, pending since 2020. In this reference, consider the following statements:1. Labour is a Union List subject, and hence central-level implementation of the 4 codes was essential despite prior efforts by the states.2. Gig & platform workers are legally defined for the first time.3. The Codes excludes Fixed Term Employment to give a boost to contractual and startup culture.Which of the above given statements is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Explanation— The Centre said recently that it was implementing four new labour codes, overhauling outdated rules governing factories and workers for decades. Labour codes covering wages, industrial relations, social security and occupational safety will now be implemented uniformly across India.— The four labour codes are the Code of Wages (2019, Industrial Relations Code (2020), Code on Social Security (2020) and Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code (2020). Effective Friday, they will replace 29 fragmented laws with a unified, modern framework.— Labour is a Concurrent List subject , and while most states have finalised rules aligned with the four Codes, central-level implementation remains pending. This delay results in: Uneven social security coverage for workers, and Compliance complexity for employers operating across multiple states.Gig & platform workers— Legally defined for the first time. Aggregators must contribute 1–2% of turnover (capped at 5% of payouts) to a welfare fund.— Commuting accidents are covered as employment-related.— Aadhaar-linked UAN enables portability of benefits across states.Contractual workers— Health and social security benefits are ensured by the principal employer.— Free annual health check-ups.Women workers— Equal pay and prohibition of gender discrimination.— Consent-based night work permitted with safety protocols.— Up to 26 weeks maternity leave, crèche facilities, medical bonus.— Parents-in-law included in the family definition.Migrant workers— Equal wages and welfare benefits.— PDS portability.— Claims allowed for pending dues up to three years.— Double wages for overtime.Sector-specific provisions— Covers workers across MSMEs, plantations, beedi and cigar, audio-visual, textile, mines, IT, hazardous industries, ports and export hubs.— Major benefits include regulated working hours, double overtime, appointment letters, safety standards, ESI coverage, PPE, annual health check-ups and stronger workplace protections.Fixed Term Employment: A key shift— The Codes frame Fixed Term Employment as a tool to reduce contractualisation and increase direct employment.Under FTE:— Workers receive the same benefits as permanent staff.— Wages must be equal to permanent employees.— Gratuity eligibility starts after one year instead of five.— Leave, working hours and medical benefits are fully regulated.— The government argues that FTE promotes formalisation, shifts workers to company payrolls and expands social security coverage.Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.QUESTION 12Recently, the Supreme Court of India struck down its ‘Vanashakti judgment’. This judgement was related to:(a) It prohibited the diversion of notified forest land for linear projects such as roads and transmission lines.(b) It stayed the grant of post-facto environmental clearances.(c) It mandated compulsory relocation of villages situated inside critical tiger habitats.(d) It suspended all new approvals for mining activities within elephant reserve landscapes.Explanation— In a 2:1 ruling, the Supreme Court on Tuesday (November 18) recalled its judgment in May that struck down a 2017 notification and a 2021 office memorandum (OM) issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). These instruments had created a pathway for projects that began work without prior approval to seek ex post facto environmental clearance.— Chief Justice of India B R Gavai and Justice K Vinod Chandran held that the May ruling, known as the Vanashakti judgment, was per incuriam, or delivered in ignorance of binding law. Justice Ujjal Bhuyan dissented, saying that the May decision reflected the correct position under environmental law. “[The] concept of ex post facto EC (environment clearance) is in derogation of the fundamental principles of environmental jurisprudence; rather, it is completely alien to environmental jurisprudence,” he noted.— At the centre of the issue is whether the environmental clearance system must operate through a strict prior-approval model, or whether retrospective clearance may be permitted in limited situations where rigid enforcement may produce outcomes that do not advance environmental protection.Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.QUESTION 13‘Birsa-101’ recently seen in the news is related to:(a) A low-Earth orbit satellite named after tribal leader Birsa Munda(b) A newly developed unique agricultural seed variety by Birsa Agricultural University(c) An indigenous CRISPR-based gene therapy for Sickle Cell Disease(d) A mobile app for tribal welfare and health awareness across Jharkhand and OdishaExplanation— A gene editing tool developed by researchers from the CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB) has been transferred to the Serum Institute of India for developing treatments for genetic diseases. The tool — that uses the same principle as the Nobel Prize-winning CRISPR gene editing technology — is completely indigenously developed, with Indian scientists holding all patents.— Not only that. The researchers have used the tool to develop a therapy to cure sickle cell disease. The therapy has been named Birsa-101 in honour of the tribal leader Birsa Munda, sickle cell disease being most prevalent in tribal populations.Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.QUESTION 14Recently, a National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) telescope in Earth’s orbit has been gradually descending. To mitigate this risk and prolong the mission, NASA has enlisted a startup to carry out a rescue effort. In this context, which of the following statements is/are true?1. The startup is building a spacecraft called LINK, which is intended to reposition the telescope into a more stable orbit.2. The Neil Gehrels Swift Observatory (often referred to simply as “Swift”) currently descending from its orbit due to atmospheric drag and lacks an onboard propulsion system to correct it.Which of the above statements is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Explanation— A National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) telescope in Earth’s orbit is gradually descending, facing about a 90 per cent likelihood of uncontrolled re-entry by late 2026. To mitigate this risk and prolong the observatory’s mission, NASA has enlisted an Arizona-based aerospace startup to conduct a rescue effort.— Katalyst Space Technologies, headquartered in Flagstaff, has been awarded $30 million by NASA to boost the orbit of the Neil Gehrels Swift Observatory. Katalyst is building a spacecraft called LINK, which is intended to autonomously rendezvous with Swift and reposition it into a more stable orbit.— The Swift observatory was launched in 2004 to study gamma-ray bursts, some of the most powerful explosions in the known universe. Over its roughly 20 years in low-Earth orbit, Swift’s altitude has gradually declined – a common fate for satellites – but recent increases in solar activity have boosted atmospheric drag, accelerating its orbital decay.— As Swift descends, the increasing atmospheric resistance raises the risk of re-entry. While Swift would likely disintegrate during re-entry and pose no threat to people or property on Earth, NASA and Katalyst aim to extend its operational life.Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.QUESTION 15Ousted former Bangladesh prime minister Sheikh Hasina was recently sentenced to death by the International Crimes Tribunal (Bangladesh). Why was it originally established?(a) to serve as a special political court for prosecuting current or former Bangladeshi political leaders.(b) to try foreign war criminals from neighboring countries for crimes committed in recent protests.(c) to prosecute suspects for the genocide committed by the Pakistan Army and their local collaborators during the Bangladesh Liberation War.(d) None of the aboveExplanation— Ousted former Bangladesh prime minister Sheikh Hasina was on Monday, November 17, sentenced to death by the International Crimes Tribunal (Bangladesh).— The International Crimes Tribunal (Bangladesh) was established by the Sheikh Hasina government in 2010, fulfilling a promise her party, the Awami League, made in the 2008 general elections.— The ICT was established to prosecute suspects for the genocide committed by the Pakistan Army and their local collaborators, known as the Razakars, during the Bangladesh Liberation War in 1971.Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.Previous Weekly QuizUPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | November 09 to November 15, 2025UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | November 02 to November 08, 2025UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | October 26 to November 01, 2025UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | October 19 to October 25, 2025UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | October 12 to October 18, 2025Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week.Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.